ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. After attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets, a client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, what is the nurse’s first priority?
- A. Establish a rapport to foster trust
- B. Place the client in full restraints
- C. Try to communicate with the client in writing
- D. Ensure safety by initiating suicide precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's first priority in this situation is to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. This involves removing any potential means of self-harm and closely monitoring the client to prevent further attempts. While establishing rapport and communication are important, safety is paramount at this critical juncture. Placing the client in full restraints should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for immediate safety concerns.
2. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles?
- A. Patient holding squad
- B. Surgical squad
- C. Ambulance squad
- D. Area support squad
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Ambulance squad.' The Ambulance Squad is composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles, making it the module described in the question. Choice A, 'Patient holding squad,' is incorrect as it does not match the composition specified. Choice B, 'Surgical squad,' is incorrect as it focuses on surgical rather than general medical support. Choice D, 'Area support squad,' is incorrect as it does not align with the composition of four specialists and two vehicles.
3. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?
- A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
- B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
- C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
- D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.
4. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
- C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
- D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.
5. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
- A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
- B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
- C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
- D. Discard the first flow of the urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When collecting a mid-stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis, it is important to collect an adequate amount of urine for accurate testing. A volume of 30 to 60 ml is usually recommended for optimal results, so collecting only 5 to 10 ml would not provide enough urine for testing purposes. It is essential to follow proper collection techniques to ensure accurate and reliable test results.
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