Nursing Elites

1. For a patient on a ketogenic diet, which macronutrient is primarily increased?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Protein
• C. Fats
• D. Fiber

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fats. A ketogenic diet is characterized by high fat intake, moderate protein intake, and very low carbohydrate intake. This diet aims to shift the body's metabolism to use fat as the primary source of energy instead of carbohydrates. Increasing fat intake while reducing carbohydrates is essential for achieving and maintaining a state of ketosis. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the macronutrient adjustments required for a ketogenic diet.

2. Causes of acute renal failure include:

• A. chronic renal failure
• B. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
• C. recurrent urinary tract infections
• D. severe injury such as extensive burns

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Severe injuries, like extensive burns, can cause acute renal failure due to shock, reduced blood flow to the kidneys, and tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chronic renal failure, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, and recurrent urinary tract infections are more likely to contribute to chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

3. A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia should be taught to consume which of the following dietary recommendations?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Milk and turkey slices
• D. Fish and cottage cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is spinach and beef. Both spinach and beef are high in iron, making them excellent choices to help combat iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt, mozzarella, milk, turkey slices, fish, and cottage cheese are not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef, so they are not the most suitable dietary recommendations for a client with iron deficiency anemia.

4. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

5. Obsessive compulsive disorder is classified under:

• A. Psychotic disorders
• B. Neurotic disorders
• C. Major depressive disorder
• D. Bipolar disorder

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

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