ATI RN
Psychology 2301 Exam 1
1. Etiology refers to ________
- A. a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior.
- B. the causal pattern of a disorder.
- C. a predisposition toward developing a disorder.
- D. a condition that makes it less likely a person will experience the negative consequences of stress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Etiology refers to the causal pattern of a disorder, explaining the factors contributing to the development of a specific condition. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a condition that maintains maladaptive behavior, which is not the definition of etiology. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a predisposition, which is more related to risk factors rather than the cause itself. Choice D is incorrect as it discusses a condition that reduces the negative consequences of stress, which is not directly related to the cause of a disorder.
2. William James, who was a pioneer in the development of functionalism, was most heavily influenced by?
- A. Charles Darwin.
- B. Sigmund Freud.
- C. John Watson.
- D. B.F. Skinner.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: William James was heavily influenced by Charles Darwin's theory of evolution, which shaped his functionalist views on psychology. This influence is evident in James's emphasis on adaptation, survival, and the functional purposes of behavior. Choice B, Sigmund Freud, is incorrect because Freud's psychoanalytic theory focused on unconscious processes and childhood experiences, which differ significantly from James's functionalism. Choice C, John Watson, is incorrect as Watson was a behaviorist who emphasized observable behavior and rejected mental processes, which contrasts with James's focus on mental processes. Choice D, B.F. Skinner, is also incorrect as Skinner was a behaviorist known for his work on operant conditioning, which is not directly aligned with James's functionalist perspective.
3. Professor Immel believes that behaviors that are predominant in certain species probably serve some adaptive function. Professor Immel's beliefs are most consistent with which perspective?
- A. Behavioral perspective.
- B. Cognitive perspective.
- C. Humanistic perspective.
- D. Evolutionary perspective.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Professor Immel's belief that behaviors in certain species serve an adaptive function aligns with the evolutionary perspective. The evolutionary perspective posits that behaviors have developed over time because they provide an advantage for survival and reproduction. This perspective emphasizes the role of natural selection in shaping behaviors based on their adaptive value. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically address the idea that behaviors have evolved to serve specific functions for survival, making them inconsistent with Professor Immel's beliefs.
4. When the parent returned in the strange situation experiment, babies with ____ attachment tend to remain upset for long periods of time, kicking, screaming, refusing to be distracted with toys, and sometimes arching back and away from contact?
- A. Secure
- B. Avoidant
- C. Ambivalent
- D. Disorganized
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the strange situation experiment, babies with ambivalent attachment display distress and have difficulty calming down when a parent returns. They may kick, scream, refuse toys, and show signs of physical discomfort or resistance. This behavior is characteristic of ambivalent attachment, where the infant shows mixed emotions and finds it hard to be soothed by the returning parent. Secure attachment (Choice A) refers to babies who seek comfort from the parent but can be soothed upon return. Avoidant attachment (Choice B) involves babies showing little emotion upon reunion with the parent. Disorganized attachment (Choice D) displays inconsistent or confused behaviors in the strange situation experiment.
5. What is the result when a single zygote separates into two parts, each developing into a separate individual?
- A. Dizygotic twin
- B. Monozygotic twin
- C. Fraternal twin
- D. Nonidentical twin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Monozygotic twin. A monozygotic twin, also known as an identical twin, is the result when a single zygote splits into two parts, leading to the development of two genetically identical individuals. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the scenario where a single zygote splits into two parts to form identical twins. Dizygotic twin (Choice A) refers to fraternal twins, which result from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells. Fraternal twin (Choice C) is another term for dizygotic twins, arising from two separate zygotes. Nonidentical twin (Choice D) is a synonymous term for dizygotic or fraternal twins, indicating that they are not genetically identical.
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