Nursing Elites

1. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Hepatic encephalopathy
• C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
• D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly utilized for patients experiencing acute exacerbations of Crohn’s disease to provide necessary nutrition and rest the bowel. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enteral feedings are not typically indicated for acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, or ulcerative colitis in remission.

2. Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increased sodium intake
• B. Decreased potassium intake
• C. Increased fiber intake
• D. Increased cholesterol intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased fiber intake. A diet high in fiber is beneficial for patients with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Increased sodium intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can raise blood pressure. Decreasing potassium intake (choice B) is not advisable as potassium helps regulate blood pressure. Increased cholesterol intake (choice D) is also not recommended as high cholesterol levels can contribute to cardiovascular issues, including hypertension.

3. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Patient Holding Squad
• C. Area Support Squad
• D. Surgical Squad

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Patient Holding Squad is the module that is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients. This squad focuses on providing necessary care for patients who require minimal attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically cater to the needs of minimal care patients. The Treatment Squad may involve more intensive procedures, the Area Support Squad focuses on broader support functions, and the Surgical Squad is specialized for surgical interventions.

4. What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?

• A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
• B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
• C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
• D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis.' Insulinomas cause hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production, leading to symptoms such as nervousness (from the sympathetic response to hypoglycemia), jitteriness, and diaphoresis (sweating). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (Choice B) are not typical signs of insulinoma. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (Choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinoma. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (Choice D) are more indicative of hyperthyroidism or a hypermetabolic state, rather than an insulinoma presentation.

5. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

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