Nursing Elites

1. During a staffing crisis, managers may need to use nurse extenders. These individuals are better known as:

• A. Float RNs.
• B. Unlicensed assistive personnel.
• C. LPNs.
• D. Agency nurses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a staffing crisis, managers may need to utilize unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) as nurse extenders. UAPs help free up nurses' time, enabling them to focus more on direct client care. Float RNs (Choice A) refer to registered nurses who work in various units as needed, not specifically as nurse extenders during crises. LPNs (Choice C) are licensed practical nurses, not typically used as nurse extenders. Agency nurses (Choice D) are temporary nurses hired from external agencies, not necessarily designated as nurse extenders.

2. Recent polls have placed nursing as one of the most trusted professions because of which of the following?

• A. Nurses engage in lifelong learning.
• B. Nurses abide by a dress code.
• C. Nurses have the skills needed to care for diverse populations.
• D. Nurses must pass the NCLEX in order to obtain a license to practice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Recent polls have identified nursing as one of the most trusted professions due to nurses possessing the necessary skills to provide care for diverse populations. This includes understanding and addressing the unique needs of individuals from various backgrounds and cultures. Choice A is incorrect because while nurses do engage in lifelong learning, this is not the primary reason for their trustworthiness. Choice B is also incorrect as abiding by a dress code does not directly contribute to the trust placed in nurses. Choice D is incorrect because passing the NCLEX exam is a regulatory requirement for obtaining a license and does not solely determine the trustworthiness of nurses in the eyes of the public.

3. A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the healthcare provider should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
• B. Administer IV potassium supplements
• C. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels
• D. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial priority is to assess for any cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalances. Since the patient has a low serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L, placing the patient on a cardiac monitor is crucial to monitor for any potential cardiac complications. Administering IV potassium supplements (Choice B) may be needed, but it is not the first action to take. Obtaining urine glucose and ketone levels (Choice C) and starting an insulin infusion (Choice D) are important interventions in managing DKA, but ensuring patient safety by monitoring for arrhythmias takes precedence.

4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of disruptive conflict. In disruptive conflict, the parties involved engage in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. The resident refusing to answer calls and the nurse retaliating with frequent calls to 'get back' at him exemplify behaviors aimed at causing disruption and conflict between them. Perceived conflict refers to each party's perception of the other's position, competitive conflict involves one side winning at the expense of the other, and felt conflict is about the feelings of opposition within the relationship, none of which fully capture the nature of the conflict displayed in this scenario.

5. When considering virtue ethics, which of the following is true?

• A. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to moral rules.
• B. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to knowledge of consequences.
• C. Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior.
• D. Virtue ethics is a formal statement of rules for behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior. Virtue ethics is a branch of ethical theory that emphasizes an individual's character and virtues rather than focusing on specific rules or consequences. Choice A is incorrect as virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to moral rules; instead, it emphasizes developing virtuous character traits. Choice B is incorrect because virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to knowledge of consequences; it looks at the moral character of the individual. Choice D is incorrect as virtue ethics is not a formal statement of rules for behavior but rather a perspective that emphasizes the importance of developing virtuous character traits.

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