Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following substances increase the amount of urine produced?

• A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola
• B. Beets
• C. Urinary analgesics
• D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine production by promoting the excretion of water from the body through the kidneys. Therefore, substances like caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola, can lead to an increase in the amount of urine produced.

2. Prior to a thoracentesis, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client in an upright position, leaning over the bedside table.
• B. Explain the procedure.
• C. Obtain ABGs.
• D. Administer benzocaine spray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positioning the client in an upright position, leaning over the bedside table helps to facilitate access to the thoracic cavity during the thoracentesis procedure. This position allows for easier identification and access to the insertion site. Explaining the procedure to the client is important, but positioning is the priority. Obtaining ABGs is not directly related to the thoracentesis procedure. Administering benzocaine spray is not a standard practice before a thoracentesis.

3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

4. If a healthcare provider administers an injection to a patient who refuses, they have committed:

• A. Assault and battery
• B. Negligence
• C. Malpractice
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a healthcare provider administers treatment, such as an injection, against a patient's refusal or will, it constitutes assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act that causes a person to fear that they will be touched without consent, while battery involves the actual harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, administering the injection without the patient's consent is both an assault (causing fear of unwanted contact) and a battery (unwanted physical contact). Therefore, the correct answer is 'Assault and battery.' Negligence refers to a failure to exercise the appropriate level of care expected in a situation, while malpractice involves professional negligence or misconduct.

5. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?

• A. Non-rebreather mask
• B. Venturi mask
• C. Nasal cannula
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.

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