Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following substances increase the amount of urine produced?

• A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola
• B. Beets
• C. Urinary analgesics
• D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine production by promoting the excretion of water from the body through the kidneys. Therefore, substances like caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola, can lead to an increase in the amount of urine produced.

2. A client with depression reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Pseudoparkinsonism
• D. Acute dystonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When St. John's wort, an herbal supplement, is taken with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a serious condition that can occur when there is an excess of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, rapid heart rate, increased body temperature, and more. Monitoring for serotonin syndrome is crucial when these substances are taken together to prevent any potential harm to the client.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

4. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client’s body temperature?

• A. Oral
• B. Axillary
• C. Arterial line
• D. Rectal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where the oral route is contraindicated due to oral surgery or altered consciousness, the rectal method is preferred for the most accurate body temperature reading. This method is particularly useful when the skin is flushed and warm, as it provides a reliable reflection of core body temperature despite external factors affecting the skin temperature. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature due to variations caused by environmental factors and technique. Arterial line temperature monitoring is invasive and not typically used for routine temperature assessment.

5. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:

• A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
• B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
• C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
• D. Chicken bouillon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.

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