Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following substances increase the amount of urine produced?

• A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola
• B. Beets
• C. Urinary analgesics
• D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine production by promoting the excretion of water from the body through the kidneys. Therefore, substances like caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola, can lead to an increase in the amount of urine produced.

2. When providing discharge teaching for a group of clients, a nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian for which client?

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.' Gout is a condition that requires dietary modifications to manage symptoms. Anchovies are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Therefore, a referral to a dietitian is essential to provide appropriate dietary guidance for a client with gout. Clients on warfarin may need to monitor their vitamin K intake, particularly from foods like spinach. Clients taking spironolactone should be cautious about potassium-rich foods. Clients with osteoporosis should be educated on the proper administration of calcium supplements but do not necessarily need a dietitian referral for this specific statement.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

4. All of the following statements are true about donning sterile gloves except:

• A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
• B. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove.
• C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist.
• D. The inside of the glove is considered sterile.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When donning sterile gloves, it is essential to maintain sterility. The correct way to don sterile gloves includes grasping the outside of the cuff to put on the first glove and inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove to put on the second glove. Adjustments should be made by sliding the fingers under the sterile cuff. It is crucial to remember that once the inside of the glove is touched during the donning process, it is no longer considered sterile.

5. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

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