ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. An oncology nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. What should the nurse explain about commonalities between all of the different subtypes of leukemia?
- A. The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells.
- B. The different leukemias all have unregulated proliferation of red blood cells and decreased bone marrow function.
- C. The different leukemias all result in a decrease in the production of white blood cells.
- D. The different leukemias all involve the development of cancer in the lymphatic system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Leukemia commonly involves unregulated proliferation of white blood cells.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?
- A. Cardiac function
- B. Renal function
- C. Liver function
- D. Pulmonary function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.
3. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?
- A. Gastroduodenostomy
- B. Gastrojejunostomy
- C. Gastroileostomy
- D. Gastrostomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.
4. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?
- A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
- B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
- C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
- D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.
5. A client with neutropenia is admitted to the hospital. What precaution is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Strict hand hygiene.
- B. Limit visitor contact with the client.
- C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as ordered.
- D. Administer blood products as ordered.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Strict hand hygiene. Neutropenic clients have a low level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Therefore, maintaining strict hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the introduction of pathogens that could lead to infections. Limiting visitor contact (choice B) is important but not as critical as preventing the introduction of pathogens through proper hand hygiene. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) and blood products (choice D) are treatment measures and do not address the preventive aspect that hand hygiene provides.
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