Nursing Elites

1. An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempting to boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the patient's inflammation?

• A. Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces
• B. Chemotaxis
• C. Accumulation of leukocytes along epithelium
• D. Phagocytosis of cellular debris

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the vascular stage of inflammation, there is an outpouring of exudate into the interstitial spaces, leading to swelling and edema. Choice B, chemotaxis, occurs during the cellular stage of inflammation, where leukocytes move to the site of injury in response to chemical signals. Choice C, accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium, is not a typical event during the vascular stage. Phagocytosis of cellular debris, as in choice D, mainly occurs during the resolution stage of inflammation.

2. What function does aldosterone serve in the body?

• A. Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, decreases fluid volume, and decreases blood pressure
• B. Aldosterone causes a retention of sodium in the body, increases fluid volume, and increases blood pressure
• C. Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, increases fluid volume, and decreases blood pressure
• D. Aldosterone enhances intracellular sodium production and lowers blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Aldosterone functions by causing the retention of sodium in the body, which results in an increase in fluid volume and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because aldosterone actually promotes sodium retention rather than release. Choice C is incorrect as it states that aldosterone decreases fluid volume, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect because aldosterone does not enhance intracellular sodium production; instead, it primarily acts on sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.

3. During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?

• A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce airway inflammation.
• B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading to assess the severity of the exacerbation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.

4. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

5. A 9-year-old girl has a diffuse collection of symptoms that are indicative of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control. She also suffers from persistent fluid and electrolyte imbalances. On which aspect of the nervous system listed below would her health care providers focus their diagnostic efforts?

• A. The thalamus
• B. The pituitary
• C. The hypothalamus
• D. The midbrain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating endocrine and autonomic functions, including fluid and electrolyte balance. In this case, the girl's symptoms of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control, along with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, point towards dysfunction in the hypothalamus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thalamus is mainly involved in sensory relay, the pituitary gland regulates various hormones but is controlled by the hypothalamus, and the midbrain is responsible for motor control and arousal, not endocrine or autonomic functions.

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