Nursing Elites

1. An influenza outbreak has spread through a long-term care residence, affecting many of the residents with severe malaise, fever, and nausea and vomiting. In an effort to curb the outbreak, the nurse has liaised with a physician to see if residents may be candidates for treatment with what drug?

• A. Saquinavir mesylate
• B. Oseltamivir phosphate
• C. Lamivudine
• D. Ribavirin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oseltamivir phosphate. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza infections. It works by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, reducing the spread of the virus in the body. Saquinavir mesylate (choice A) is used in the treatment of HIV, not influenza. Lamivudine (choice C) is also an antiviral medication primarily used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B, not influenza. Ribavirin (choice D) is used to treat certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but it is not a first-line treatment for influenza.

2. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What key instruction should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide regarding the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis is to take the medication at the same time each day. This helps to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals. Choice C is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation rather than discontinuing the medication without medical advice. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

3. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

4. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy in a male patient?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. This is why nurses should monitor for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues during therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures. It is crucial for nurses to prioritize cardiovascular monitoring in patients receiving testosterone therapy.

5. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. A brain infection
• B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
• C. Decreased albumin blood levels
• D. Untreated chronic bronchitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

Similar Questions