an adult male has a new diagnosis of guillain barre syndrome the nurse knows which pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the
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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

1. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

2. What is the purpose of the inflammatory response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The inflammatory response is a protective mechanism triggered by tissue damage or infection. It aims to minimize injury by removing harmful stimuli and initiating the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because blood flow to the injured tissue is actually increased to deliver immune cells and nutrients. Choice B is incorrect because while fever is a response to infection, it is not the primary purpose of the inflammatory response. Choice C is incorrect because abscess formation can occur as part of the inflammatory response in an attempt to contain an infection.

3. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.

4. What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.

5. A child is experiencing difficulty with chewing and swallowing. The nurse knows that which cells may be innervating specialized gut-related receptors that provide taste and smell?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Special visceral afferent cells. These cells are responsible for innervating taste and smell receptors related to the gut. Special somatic afferent fibers (choice A) are involved in sensations like touch and proprioception, not taste and smell. General somatic afferents (choice B) carry sensory information from the skin and musculoskeletal system, not taste and smell. General visceral afferent neurons (choice D) transmit sensory information from internal organs, but not specifically related to taste and smell sensations.

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