ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?
- A. Recency error
- B. Leniency error
- C. Halo error
- D. Absolute judgment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.
2. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation offers hospitals the following advantages: (Select all that apply.)
- A. Greater client satisfaction.
- B. Improved nursing recruitment.
- C. Greater client workload.
- D. Nurses who are independent decision makers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Achieving Magnet Hospital designation offers hospitals advantages such as improved nursing recruitment and greater nursing retention. The empowered, independent problem-solving nurses resulting from this designation contribute to greater client satisfaction and improved nursing care. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Greater client workload' (C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although they are beneficial outcomes of achieving Magnet Hospital designation, they are not advantages specifically mentioned in the provided rationale.
3. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?
- A. ''I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain.''
- B. ''Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off of the pain.''
- C. ''It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed.''
- D. ''I don't want to walk today because I have some pain.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client is demonstrating an understanding of the preoperative teaching by acknowledging the pain and relating it to the need to rest. Walking may exacerbate the pain, and the client's decision not to walk shows an awareness of their body's signals. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect a good understanding of pain management. Choice A suggests self-medicating without consulting healthcare providers, choice B focuses on distraction rather than addressing the pain, and choice C offers a coping mechanism but does not address the pain directly.
4. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
- B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
- C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
- D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
5. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?
- A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
- B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
- C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
- D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.
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