ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?
- A. Recency error
- B. Leniency error
- C. Halo error
- D. Absolute judgment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.
2. When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the healthcare provider prescribes prednisone (Deltasone). The nurse will anticipate that the patient may
- A. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
- B. develop acute hypoglycemia while taking prednisone
- C. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
- D. have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient taking metformin develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause and is prescribed prednisone, the nurse should anticipate that the patient may require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. Prednisone can increase blood glucose levels by antagonizing the effects of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Therefore, the patient may need additional insulin to manage blood sugar levels effectively. The other options are incorrect as prednisone would not directly cause a need for a higher-calorie diet, acute hypoglycemia, or rashes caused by a metformin-prednisone interaction.
3. Which of the following best describes the concept of shared governance?
- A. Top-down management
- B. Nurse-led committees
- C. Shared decision making
- D. Hierarchical structure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Shared decision making.' Shared governance in healthcare involves empowering nurses to participate in decision-making processes that affect their practice. This model fosters collaboration, transparency, and accountability among healthcare providers. Choice A, 'Top-down management,' is incorrect because shared governance promotes a bottom-up approach. Choice B, 'Nurse-led committees,' is partially correct as it is a component of shared governance, but the core concept is broader and encompasses shared decision making beyond committee leadership. Choice D, 'Hierarchical structure,' is incorrect as shared governance aims to flatten hierarchies and distribute decision-making authority among healthcare team members.
4. When a client with a terminal diagnosis asks about advance directives, what should the nurse do?
- A. Engage the client and ask why they want to discuss this without their partner present.
- B. Provide information on advance directives and offer brochures.
- C. Advise the client to schedule a discussion with their provider.
- D. Focus on the client's current feelings and postpone planning for a later time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct response as it demonstrates active listening and empathy by engaging the client in a discussion about their concerns regarding advance directives. It also recognizes the importance of involving the client's partner in such discussions, promoting shared decision-making and support. Choices B and C lack the personalized approach needed in this situation and do not address the client's immediate request for information. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the client's expressed need to discuss advance directives and focuses solely on their current feelings, delaying a crucial conversation.
5. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering childhood vaccinations
- B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
- C. Routine screening for hypertension
- D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.
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