Nursing Elites

1. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation offers hospitals the following advantages: (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Greater client satisfaction.
• B. Improved nursing recruitment.
• C. Greater client workload.
• D. Nurses who are independent decision makers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation provides advantages such as greater client satisfaction, improved nursing recruitment, and nurses who are independent decision makers. However, the statement about 'Greater client workload' is not a typical advantage associated with Magnet recognition. Organizations that achieve Magnet recognition focus on improving nursing work environments, empowering nurses, and enhancing patient care quality, rather than increasing client workload. Therefore, C is the correct choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they align with the benefits of achieving Magnet Hospital designation as they lead to increased satisfaction, better recruitment, and more empowered nurses.

2. What is the main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey?

• A. To improve patient outcomes
• B. To evaluate nursing performance
• C. To measure patient satisfaction
• D. To assess healthcare facilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey is to measure patient satisfaction. These surveys aim to gather feedback directly from patients regarding their experiences and perceptions of the healthcare services they have received. While patient satisfaction may impact outcomes indirectly, the primary goal of the survey is not to directly improve patient outcomes, making choice A incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because patient satisfaction surveys are not primarily focused on evaluating nursing performance specifically. Choice D is also incorrect because the main focus of the survey is on the satisfaction of patients rather than assessing healthcare facilities.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse preceptor?

• A. Supervisor of all nursing staff
• B. Mentor and educator for new nurses
• C. Director of nursing services
• D. Coordinator of patient care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Mentor and educator for new nurses.' A nurse preceptor plays a crucial role in mentoring and educating new nurses. They provide guidance, support, and practical knowledge to help new nurses transition smoothly into their roles. While preceptors may have supervisory responsibilities during the orientation period, their primary focus is on supporting the professional development of new nurses, rather than supervising all nursing staff, directing nursing services, or coordinating patient care. Choice A is incorrect because a nurse preceptor does not supervise all nursing staff but focuses on new nurses. Choice C is incorrect as the role of a director of nursing services involves overall management and leadership of nursing services. Choice D is incorrect as a coordinator of patient care is responsible for organizing patient care activities, not specifically focused on mentoring new nurses.

4. The healthcare provider is developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure (CHF). Which components are essential to include? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

• A. Expected length of stay
• B. Assigned staff healthcare provider
• C. Patient outcomes
• D. Medical diagnosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Critical pathways are designed to outline the expected sequence and timing of interventions to achieve optimal patient outcomes for a specific medical condition. Components such as the expected length of stay, patient outcomes, and medical diagnosis are crucial in developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure. However, the assigned staff healthcare provider is not typically a fixed component of a critical pathway as it may vary based on staffing schedules and rotations. Therefore, the assigned staff healthcare provider is the component that does not apply.

5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

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