Nursing Elites

1. A unit manager has been working to decrease the incidence of catheter-associated urinary tract infections on his unit, spending extra time on the unit researching best practices and conducting training. Having completed training, the manager decides to take a couple of days off. Which of the following leadership traits is this unit manager displaying?

• A. Perseverance
• B. Balance
• C. Generosity
• D. Ability to handle stress

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Balance.' The unit manager is displaying balance by recognizing the importance of taking time off to rest and recharge after working diligently to decrease infections. 'Perseverance' is not the correct choice because the manager is taking time off, not persisting in the face of challenges. 'Generosity' and 'Ability to handle stress' are also incorrect as they do not align with the situation described.

2. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

• A. Flexible staffing
• B. Self-staffing
• C. Internal pools
• D. Management scheduling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

3. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

4. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

5. A client who had a stroke resulting in aphasia and dysphagia needs assistance. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath.
• B. Measure the client's BP after the nurse administers an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Test the client's swallowing ability by providing thickened liquids.
• D. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assisting the client with a partial bed bath is within the scope of practice for an assistive personnel and does not require specialized medical knowledge. Choice B involves measuring BP, which requires specific training and assessment skills that an assistive personnel may not have. Choice C involves testing swallowing ability, which should be done by a healthcare provider due to the risks involved in dysphagia. Choice D involves communication, which is crucial but should be done by someone with training in managing aphasia to ensure effective communication with the client.

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