ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. A Staff Nurse submits a six-week notice of resignation. The Nurse Manager prepares a request to immediately post the position and begin interviews. This action is best described as which of the following?
- A. Delegation
- B. A time-waster
- C. Reactive management
- D. Proactive management
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Proactive management. Proactive management involves taking steps to prevent issues from occurring rather than just reacting to them. In this scenario, the Nurse Manager is being proactive by preparing to fill the position before the Staff Nurse leaves, thereby preventing short staffing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Delegation refers to assigning tasks to others, not preparing to fill a vacant position. Calling it a time-waster is subjective and not reflective of the manager's proactive approach. Reactive management would involve waiting until the Nurse leaves and then trying to fill the position, causing short staffing.
2. A client is having difficulty breathing while receiving supplemental oxygen via a nasal cannula in a supine position. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?
- A. Suction the client's airway.
- B. Instruct the client to perform incentive spirometry every hour.
- C. Assist the client to an upright position.
- D. Humidify the client's supplemental oxygen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is experiencing difficulty breathing, the priority intervention is to assist the client to an upright position. This position helps improve ventilation by maximizing lung expansion and promoting better oxygenation. Suctioning the airway may be necessary if there is an obstruction, but repositioning the client is the initial step. Instructing the client to perform incentive spirometry and humidifying oxygen are important interventions but not the first priority in this scenario.
3. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?
- A. Conflict suppression
- B. Resolution aftermath
- C. Antecedent conditions
- D. Manifest behavior
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.
4. What is the best description of cultural competence in nursing?
- A. Ignoring cultural differences
- B. Adapting care to cultural needs
- C. Learning about different cultures
- D. Teaching cultural awareness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cultural competence in nursing means adapting care to meet the cultural needs of patients. This involves understanding and respecting the cultural differences of individuals to provide effective and appropriate healthcare. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring cultural differences goes against the essence of cultural competence. Choice C is not the best description as cultural competence is more than just learning about different cultures; it is about applying that knowledge in providing care. Choice D is not the best description as teaching cultural awareness is only a part of developing cultural competence, but it also requires practical application in care delivery.
5. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
- A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
- B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
- C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
- D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
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