Nursing Elites

1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to delegate client care tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the healthcare professional delegate?

• A. Confirming that a client's pain has decreased after receiving an analgesic
• B. Ambulating a client who is postoperative
• C. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a client
• D. Demonstrating the use of an incentive spirometer to a client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is option A: 'Confirming that a client's pain has decreased after receiving an analgesic.' This task involves assessing the effectiveness of the medication, which can be delegated to the assistive personnel. Options B, C, and D involve skills that should be performed by licensed healthcare professionals due to their complexity and potential risks if not done correctly. Ambulating a postoperative client requires monitoring for signs of distress or complications, inserting a urinary catheter involves an invasive procedure with infection risks, and demonstrating the use of medical devices like an incentive spirometer requires specialized knowledge to ensure correct usage.

3. A ___________ manager supervises a number of first-level managers, usually within related specialties.

• A. self-directed
• B. first-level
• C. middle-level
• D. self-motivated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A middle-level manager is responsible for overseeing a group of first-level managers who handle day-to-day operations within their respective specialties. Middle-level managers play a crucial role in coordinating and aligning the efforts of multiple first-level managers to achieve organizational goals. They act as a bridge between top management and frontline employees, ensuring that strategies are effectively implemented at the operational level. Choice A, 'self-directed,' refers to an individual's ability to manage their own work without direct supervision and does not specifically relate to supervising other managers. Choice B, 'first-level,' describes the managers being supervised, not the position responsible for overseeing them. Choice D, 'self-motivated,' pertains to an individual's drive and determination, which is not directly related to the hierarchical level of management being discussed.

4. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

• A. Only during highly stressful situations.
• B. When there is little to no stress.
• C. Under highly structured situations.
• D. When the situation is loosely structured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

5. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of disruptive conflict. In disruptive conflict, the parties involved engage in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. The resident refusing to answer calls and the nurse retaliating with frequent calls to 'get back' at him exemplify behaviors aimed at causing disruption and conflict between them. Perceived conflict refers to each party's perception of the other's position, competitive conflict involves one side winning at the expense of the other, and felt conflict is about the feelings of opposition within the relationship, none of which fully capture the nature of the conflict displayed in this scenario.

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