Nursing Elites

1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
• B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
• C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
• D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.

3. When should a critical pathway be revised?

• A. When variances show a new trend.
• B. When the variances show a new trend.
• C. When a member of the team retires.
• D. When the client leaves the hospital.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is a better phrasing of the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of variances showing a new trend. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.

4. Which of the following laws govern nursing practice?

• A. Statutory laws
• B. Common law
• C. Administrative laws
• D. Constitutional laws

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Statutory laws are laws created by legislative bodies, such as state legislatures. In the context of nursing practice, statutory laws govern areas like licensure requirements, scope of practice, and professional standards. Common law, choice B, is based on court decisions and precedents, not specifically related to nursing practice. Administrative laws, choice C, deal with regulations set by administrative agencies rather than governing nursing practice directly. Constitutional laws, choice D, pertain to the fundamental principles outlined in a country's constitution and are not specific to regulating nursing practice.

5. A female patient is scheduled for an oral glucose tolerance test. Which information from the patient�s health history is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

• A. The patient uses oral contraceptives.
• B. The patient runs several days a week.
• C. The patient has been pregnant three times
• D. The patient has a family history of diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

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