Nursing Elites

1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

• A. Flexible staffing
• B. Self-staffing
• C. Internal pools
• D. Management scheduling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

3. Which of the following is likely to facilitate union activity?

• A. Managers communicating effectively with employees
• B. Managers listening to concerns of employees
• C. Belief that low wages cause job dissatisfaction
• D. Belief that supervisors are not understanding of unionizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because according to a study by Bilchik (2000), organizations are more likely to unionize if there is a belief that low wages cause job dissatisfaction. Choices A and B focus on effective communication and listening, which may actually prevent union activity by addressing employee concerns directly. Choice D, the belief that supervisors are not understanding of unionizing, may lead to dissatisfaction but doesn't directly facilitate union activity as the belief that low wages cause job dissatisfaction does.

4. What is the primary focus of a patient safety program?

• A. To reduce healthcare costs
• B. To improve clinical outcomes
• C. To enhance patient satisfaction
• D. To comply with regulatory standards

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary focus of a patient safety program is to enhance patient satisfaction by ensuring safe practices. While reducing healthcare costs and improving clinical outcomes are important aspects influenced by patient safety programs, the main goal is to prioritize patient well-being and satisfaction. Complying with regulatory standards is essential but not the primary focus; it is a means to achieve safe practices for the benefit of patients.

5. A nurse manager is preparing the budget for the year. The budgeted amounts have been set without regard to changes that may occur during the year. What type of budget is the manager preparing?

• A. Fixed budget
• B. Zero-based budget
• C. Variable budget
• D. Operating budget

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fixed budget. A fixed budget is one where the budgeted amounts are set without considering changes that may occur during the year. This type of budget is based on the assumption that the business environment will remain stable. Choice B, Zero-based budget, involves setting the budget at zero and justifying all expenses. Choice C, Variable budget, adjusts based on changes in activity levels. Choice D, Operating budget, is a comprehensive projection of all revenue and expenses for the upcoming period.

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