the final stages of the conflict process are
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1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. Which of the following is a common characteristic of a high-performing healthcare team?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Collaborative decision making is a key characteristic of a high-performing healthcare team because it involves team members working together to make decisions that lead to the best outcomes for patients. Effective communication is important in any team, but collaborative decision making goes beyond communication by involving team members in the decision-making process. Shared leadership is also crucial for a high-performing team, as it promotes equality and empowerment among team members. On the other hand, a hierarchical structure can hinder effective communication and teamwork by creating barriers between team members and limiting input from all team members, which is counterproductive to achieving optimal healthcare outcomes.

3. What is the primary goal of patient education?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To empower patients to take control of their health.' Patient education aims to provide individuals with the knowledge and skills necessary to actively participate in managing their health conditions. Choice A, 'To enhance clinical skills,' is incorrect as patient education focuses on empowering patients, not enhancing healthcare providers' skills. Choice B, 'To ensure patient safety,' is incorrect because while patient safety is crucial, the primary goal of patient education is to empower patients. Choice D, 'To improve patient compliance,' is also incorrect as the main aim is to empower patients to make informed decisions and take an active role in their healthcare.

4. What is the main purpose of a clinical audit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practices. While patient satisfaction might be a component evaluated during an audit, the primary goal is to ensure that care is safe, effective, and patient-centered, rather than solely focusing on satisfaction. Evaluating the effectiveness of clinical practices is a related but more specific goal compared to the broader aim of identifying areas for improvement. Standardizing patient care protocols can be a result of a clinical audit, but it is not the main purpose, which is to pinpoint areas needing enhancement.

5. Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) serves as a consultant for nursing staff, providing expert advice and guidance on clinical practice. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as CNS typically focus more on education, research, and consultation rather than direct patient care. Choice B, 'Administrator of healthcare facilities,' is incorrect as this role is usually fulfilled by nurse administrators or nurse managers. Choice D, 'Policy maker in healthcare organizations,' is incorrect as policy-making roles are typically held by individuals in healthcare administration or government positions.

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