the final stages of the conflict process are
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1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

3. Which of the following is an example of a clinical decision support system (CDSS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, smart infusion pumps. Smart infusion pumps are an example of a clinical decision support system (CDSS) as they help ensure accurate medication delivery by providing alerts and dosage calculations. Choice A, electronic health record (EHR), is not a CDSS but rather a digital version of a patient's paper chart. Choice B, barcode medication administration, involves scanning barcodes to verify medication administration but is not a CDSS. Choice D, automated drug dispensing system, automates the medication dispensing process but is not specifically a CDSS.

4. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.

5. What is the main purpose of a nursing code of ethics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main purpose of a nursing code of ethics is to provide a framework for ethical decision-making in nursing practice. While choice A is important, the primary focus of a nursing code of ethics is not solely to protect the rights and dignity of patients but to guide nurses in making ethical decisions. Choice B is more related to legal requirements, not the ethical aspects covered by a code of ethics. Choice C, setting standards for clinical practice, is important but distinct from the primary purpose of a code of ethics, which is centered on ethical decision-making.

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