Nursing Elites

1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital has a long half-life of 4 days, meaning it remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should expect to administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain therapeutic levels and effectiveness. Administering it more than once a day would lead to unnecessary dosing and potential adverse effects as the medication remains active in the body for an extended period.

2. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can stain your contacts.
• B. This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.
• C. This medication can absorb into your contacts.
• D. This medication can slow your heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove their contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid potential absorption of the medication by the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine's main concern with contact lenses is its absorption into the lenses rather than staining contacts, causing pupil constriction, or affecting heart rate.

3. What is one therapeutic use for nitroglycerin?

• A. Relief or prevention of anginal attacks
• B. Diuresis and mobilization of excess fluid
• C. Decreasing nausea and vomiting
• D. Relief of anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is primarily used for the relief or prevention of anginal attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, thereby relieving chest pain caused by angina. The medication is not indicated for diuresis, antiemetic effects, or anxiety relief. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the therapeutic use of nitroglycerin.

4. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Press your finger on the inside corner of your eye for 1 minute after application.
• B. Apply the eye drops directly on the cornea.
• C. Drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac.
• D. Wipe your eyes gently with a tissue immediately after application.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to administer eye drops is by instructing the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps in proper distribution and absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as pressing the inside corner of the eye is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect because applying eye drops directly on the cornea can cause irritation and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as wiping the eyes immediately after application can remove the medication and reduce its effectiveness.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

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