a patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration what action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

2. What should a healthcare professional do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the healthcare professional should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it should not be the first step when cramping occurs. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may exacerbate the cramping, so it is not the best course of action. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) will likely worsen the cramping and should be avoided.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

5. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

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