ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. A nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What should be included in the care plan?
- A. Monitor serum albumin levels
- B. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- C. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
- D. Teach the patient to avoid alcohol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum albumin levels. In patients with diabetes insipidus, monitoring serum albumin levels is essential to assess for dehydration and nutritional deficits. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Restricting protein intake, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching the patient to avoid alcohol are interventions that may be relevant for other medical conditions but are not specific to addressing the needs of a patient with diabetes insipidus.
2. What is the priority action if a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose?
- A. Check the patient's blood glucose level
- B. Administer IV dextrose
- C. Document the incident
- D. Continue monitoring the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action when a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose is to check the patient's blood glucose level. This is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. While administering IV dextrose may be necessary if the patient's blood glucose level is critically low, confirming hypoglycemia is essential to guide appropriate interventions. Documenting the incident is important for documentation purposes but is not the immediate priority when the patient's safety is at risk. Continuing to monitor the patient is essential, but it should follow the confirmation and initial management of hypoglycemia.
3. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.
4. What is the first action when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube system
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the first action should be to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step is crucial as it can often resolve an air leak causing continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system would not address the underlying issue of loose connections and may not be necessary. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications if the air leak is not addressed promptly.
5. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
- A. Defibrillation
- B. Synchronized cardioversion
- C. Pacing
- D. Medication administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. In this scenario, the heart still has an organized rhythm, so synchronized cardioversion is used to deliver a shock at a specific point in the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore a normal rhythm. Defibrillation (Choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (Choice C) may be used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (Choice D) can be considered for stable ventricular tachycardia, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
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