a nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus what should be included in the care plan
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ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. A nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What should be included in the care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum albumin levels. In patients with diabetes insipidus, monitoring serum albumin levels is essential to assess for dehydration and nutritional deficits. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Restricting protein intake, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching the patient to avoid alcohol are interventions that may be relevant for other medical conditions but are not specific to addressing the needs of a patient with diabetes insipidus.

2. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

4. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

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