Nursing Elites

1. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

2. When conducting an initial feeding evaluation, the therapist asks the caregiver to bring the utensils, food, and high chair that they typically use. Which statement best reflects the therapist's reasoning for this?

• A. Using the child's actual materials will give the therapist an accurate picture
• B. The therapist wants to be sensitive to the child's culture
• C. The center has limited funds for food and materials
• D. The therapist would like to know if the caregiver can follow directions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By having the caregiver bring the child's familiar utensils, food, and high chair, the therapist can observe the child's typical eating behaviors and challenges accurately. This provides valuable insights that help in tailoring appropriate interventions to address feeding issues effectively.

3. A nurse is caring for a child who has a new diagnosis of osteomyelitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer aspirin for pain.
• B. Apply ice to the affected area.
• C. Monitor the child�s weight daily.
• D. Limit the child's activity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the child�s weight daily to assess the effectiveness of treatment for osteomyelitis and detect potential complications.

4. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer an immunization to a four-year-old child. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Place the child in a prone position for the immunization
• B. Request that the child's caregiver stay in the room during the immunization
• C. Administer the immunization using a 24-gauge needle
• D. Inject the immunization slowly without aspirating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering an immunization to a four-year-old child, it is important to use a 24-gauge needle to minimize pain and discomfort for the child. Thicker needles can cause more pain and tissue trauma. Using a thinner needle like a 24-gauge is appropriate for pediatric immunizations. Placing the child in a prone position for immunization is not recommended as it can be uncomfortable and may not allow for proper access to the injection site. Having the caregiver stay in the room during the immunization is beneficial for support and comfort for the child. Injecting the immunization slowly without aspirating is correct, as aspirating before administering the immunization is not required for intramuscular injections in current practice.

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