Nursing Elites

1. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

2. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

3. A child is being assessed for possible appendicitis with perforation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• B. Abdominal distension
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with appendicitis and possible perforation, the nurse should expect bradycardia due to peritoneal irritation. Bradycardia is a common response to peritoneal inflammation or infection, indicating a possible serious complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and hypoactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions and are less likely to be present in a child with appendicitis and perforation. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia (D) as it aligns with the expected physiological response in this scenario.

4. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
• B. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Risk for Aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.

5. Which type of food is the most difficult to swallow?

• A. Raw Vegetables
• B. Strained Fruit
• C. Chopped Meat
• D. Mashed Vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chopped meat is the most difficult to swallow as it requires thorough chewing and coordination to avoid swallowing hazards, making it more challenging compared to raw vegetables, strained fruit, and mashed vegetables.

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