Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving glucocorticoids for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient complains of having a headache. Which ordered medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Acetaminophen
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Naproxen Sodium (Aleve)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is already receiving glucocorticoids for rheumatoid arthritis and complains of a headache, it is essential to consider the potential interactions and side effects of additional medications. Aspirin and NSAIDs like ibuprofen and naproxen sodium can increase the risk of gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration when used concurrently with glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen is a safer choice in this scenario for managing the patient's headache without exacerbating the gastrointestinal issues associated with the use of glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen does not have the same gastrointestinal side effects as aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen sodium, making it the most appropriate option for headache relief in this case.

2. During an assessment, an infant is suspected to have intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Currant jelly stools
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Scaphoid abdomen
• D. Frequent stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, causing obstruction. The classic presentation includes currant jelly stools, which are a mixture of blood and mucus due to the sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. This finding is a result of the compromised blood supply to the affected area and is a key characteristic associated with intussusception.

3. A patient taking isotretinoin (Accutane) for acne vulgaris. Which statement indicates that the patient teaching has been effective?

• A. I should use a reliable form of birth control.
• B. I will stop taking the drug if my skin is dry.
• C. It is important to increase intake of vitamin A.
• D. I do not need to use sunblock while taking Accutane.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, which means it can cause birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for patients, especially females of childbearing potential, to use effective forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while taking this medication. This is a key component of patient teaching to ensure the safe use of isotretinoin. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing isotretinoin abruptly can lead to a flare-up of acne. Choice C is incorrect because increasing vitamin A intake can be harmful due to the risk of hypervitaminosis A. Choice D is incorrect because isotretinoin makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, so sunblock is essential to prevent sunburn and skin damage.

4. A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child�s parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101�F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Give instructions on relieving symptoms with acetaminophen
• B. Seek emergency help, because these symptoms are signs of anaphylactic reaction
• C. Tell the parent that a live vaccine will cause a mild case of measles
• D. Obtain and fill out a Vaccine Adverse Event Report form

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low-grade fever, malaise, and muscle aches are common reactions. Acetaminophen usually alleviates these problems. MMR is a live vaccine but it is attenuated or completely avirulent and does not cause measles in healthy children, only immunocompromised children.

5. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

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