ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What key contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. History of hypertension
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. Use of antihypertensive medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, so their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while a history of hypertension or use of antihypertensive medications may influence treatment decisions, they are not the key contraindication specifically related to sildenafil use.
2. Which type of lymphocyte recognizes and eliminates virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Natural killer cells
- D. Langerhans cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. Neutrophils (Choice A) are a type of white blood cell involved in fighting infections, mainly through phagocytosis. Macrophages (Choice B) are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and digests cellular debris and pathogens. Langerhans cells (Choice D) are a type of dendritic cell found in the skin and mucosa, primarily involved in antigen presentation.
3. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?
- A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- B. Oprelvekin (Neumega)
- C. Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen)
- D. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.
4. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
- A. HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer, so these risks should be discussed with the patient.
- B. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should undergo regular screening.
- D. HRT decreases the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.
5. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
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