Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.

2. What is the purpose of the inflammatory response?

• A. Prevents blood from entering the injured tissue
• B. Elevates body temperature to prevent spread of infection
• C. Prevents formation of abscess
• D. Minimizes injury and promotes healing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The inflammatory response is a protective mechanism triggered by tissue damage or infection. It aims to minimize injury by removing harmful stimuli and initiating the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because blood flow to the injured tissue is actually increased to deliver immune cells and nutrients. Choice B is incorrect because while fever is a response to infection, it is not the primary purpose of the inflammatory response. Choice C is incorrect because abscess formation can occur as part of the inflammatory response in an attempt to contain an infection.

3. During the home visit of a client with dementia, the nurse notes that an adult daughter persistently corrects her father’s misperceptions of reality, even when the father becomes upset and anxious. Which intervention should the nurse teach the caregiver?

• A. Anxiety-reducing measures
• B. Positive reinforcement
• C. Reality orientation techniques
• D. Validation techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Validation techniques. In dementia care, using validation techniques involves acknowledging the person's feelings and reality, even if it differs from actual events or facts. It helps in reducing the client's anxiety and distress. In this scenario, the daughter persistently correcting her father's misperceptions can escalate his anxiety. Teaching the daughter validation techniques will encourage her to validate her father's feelings and perceptions, ultimately promoting a more supportive and less confrontational environment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context. While anxiety-reducing measures can be beneficial, the primary issue here is the father's misperceptions being consistently corrected. Positive reinforcement focuses on rewarding desired behaviors, which is not directly related to the situation described. Reality orientation techniques involve constantly reminding the person of the correct time, place, and other details, which may not be suitable for someone with dementia experiencing distress.

4. In the ICU setting, a client transported from surgery following open heart bypass grafting will likely have his or her core temperature measured by:

• A. oral thermometer.
• B. rectal thermometer.
• C. esophageal thermometer.
• D. temporal artery thermometer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An esophageal thermometer is commonly used in ICU settings to accurately measure core body temperature, especially in post-surgical patients. The esophageal thermometer provides a more precise measurement of core temperature compared to other methods like oral, rectal, or temporal artery thermometers. In the ICU, accuracy in temperature measurement is crucial for detecting and responding to changes promptly, making the esophageal thermometer the preferred choice in this scenario.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

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