Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.

2. Which physiologic response is most likely to accompany activation of the parasympathetic nervous system?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased gastric motility
• C. Pupil dilation
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased gastric motility. The parasympathetic nervous system is known to promote rest and digest functions, which includes increasing gastric motility to aid in digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are more characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate (Choice A), pupil dilation (Choice C), and sweating (Choice D) among other responses.

3. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

4. Which of the following clinical findings in a 51-year-old woman is consistent with Graves disease?

• A. Thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema.
• B. Thin hair, exophthalmos, weight gain, and constipation.
• C. Thick hair, bradycardia, weight loss, and dry skin.
• D. Thick hair, bradycardia, weight gain, and constipation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos (bulging eyes), hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic manifestations of Graves disease, an autoimmune condition that results in hyperthyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain and constipation are more indicative of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism seen in Graves disease. Choice C is incorrect as the symptoms described are more characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice D is also incorrect as the symptoms listed are not consistent with Graves disease but rather suggest hypothyroidism.

5. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

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