a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant what should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

2. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a 2-year-old with reduced urine output (1 wet diaper in 24 hours) is at high risk for dehydration. Dehydration can occur rapidly in young children and can be life-threatening. The nurse should prioritize assessing and managing the dehydration of the 2-year-old. Choices A, C, and D, although they may also require attention, do not present the same level of immediate risk as a dehydrated 2-year-old.

3. Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation in nursing care involves the actual performance and supervision of the planned therapeutic and preventive procedures for a patient. Evaluation (choice A) is the step where the effectiveness of the interventions is assessed. Planning (choice B) is the phase where the nursing care plan is developed based on the assessment. Assessment (choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to determine the patient's needs.

4. The client with peripheral vascular disease is being taught by the nurse. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes. Choice A is correct as moisture between the toes can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice B is also correct as proper footwear helps prevent injury and promotes circulation. Choice C, cutting toenails straight across, is incorrect for peripheral vascular disease clients as cutting them in an arch can reduce the risk of ingrown toenails, which is important for clients with diabetes to prevent complications. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate interventions for the client with peripheral vascular disease.

5. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

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