a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant what should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

2. A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client’s fluid status?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can reflect fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate changes in fluid status. Assessing vital signs (Choice C) can offer some information but may not be as specific to fluid status as daily weighing. Checking the client's lungs for crackles (Choice D) is more related to assessing respiratory status rather than direct fluid monitoring.

3. Identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the plan of nursing care is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluation. Evaluation in nursing care involves assessing the effectiveness of the care plan, identifying strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement. This step helps ensure that the patient's needs are being met appropriately. Planning (choice B) involves developing the care plan based on the assessment data. Implementation (choice C) is the step where the care plan is put into action. Assessment (choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process that involves collecting and analyzing data about the patient's health status.

4. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform active range of motion exercises. When a client is on strict bed rest, performing range of motion exercises is a priority to prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy. Option A may be important but not the priority compared to maintaining mobility. Option C is incorrect because elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is not necessary for a client on strict bed rest. Option D, providing a high-fiber diet, is also not the priority intervention compared to ensuring range of motion exercises are performed.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

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