a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant what should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

2. The client is recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy. Which data indicate that the client is complying with client teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lying flat in the supine position for 12 hours after a renal biopsy helps prevent bleeding, which is crucial for the client's recovery. This position aids in applying pressure to the biopsy site, reducing the risk of bleeding and ensuring optimal healing. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to compliance with client teaching after a renal biopsy. Continuing oral fluids restriction, changing the dressing, or activating a patient-controlled analgesia pump are not specific instructions aimed at promoting recovery and preventing complications post renal biopsy.

3. Determining whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluation. Evaluation involves assessing the appropriateness and effectiveness of care provided to the patient. It helps determine if the care aligns with the patient's current physiological and psychological status. Choice B, Planning, refers to developing a plan of care based on assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, involves carrying out the planned interventions. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step that involves collecting data about the patient's condition.

4. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. After a pericardiocentesis, what interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pericardiocentesis, the nurse should implement multiple interventions to monitor the client's condition closely. Monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour is crucial to detect any immediate changes that may indicate complications. Evaluating the client's cardiac rhythm is important to identify any arrhythmias that may occur due to the procedure. Recording the amount of fluid removed is essential to calculate fluid balance and ensure accurate monitoring of the client's status. Therefore, all the interventions mentioned are necessary to detect and manage any potential issues post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-procedural care and should be implemented to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

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