Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?

• A. A client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day
• B. A client whose discharge was cancelled the prior day because they developed respiratory distress
• C. A client who is 6 hr postoperative following an open cholecystectomy
• D. A client who is prescribed gastric lavage treatments to treat acute aspirin toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?

• A. Oral mucosa
• B. Conjunctivae
• C. Soles of the feet
• D. Ear lobes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.

3. A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)

• A. Acyclovir
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Rifampin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.

4. A client is administering insulin. Which statement by the client shows proper understanding of insulin administration?

• A. I will inject insulin into my thigh before exercise
• B. I will skip meals to lower blood sugar
• C. I will store my insulin in the freezer
• D. I will rotate injection sites for insulin administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rotating injection sites prevents tissue damage and ensures better absorption of insulin. Option A is incorrect as injecting insulin into the thigh before exercise can lead to hypoglycemia. Option B is incorrect as skipping meals can cause blood sugar levels to drop dangerously low. Option C is incorrect as insulin should not be stored in the freezer as it can alter its effectiveness.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

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