ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?
- A. A client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day
- B. A client whose discharge was cancelled the prior day because they developed respiratory distress
- C. A client who is 6 hr postoperative following an open cholecystectomy
- D. A client who is prescribed gastric lavage treatments to treat acute aspirin toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.
2. What are the key considerations when administering medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube?
- A. Checking tube placement before administration
- B. Administering medication in liquid form whenever possible
- C. Crushing tablets and mixing them with water if needed
- D. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Checking tube placement before administration. This is a crucial step to ensure that the medication reaches the stomach safely and does not end up in the lungs, which can lead to serious complications. Choice B is incorrect as not all medications can be administered in liquid form. Choice C is incorrect because crushing tablets can alter their effectiveness or cause harm. Choice D is incorrect as flushing the NG tube with water is not a standard practice before administering medication, unless specified by healthcare provider instructions.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?
- A. Oral mucosa
- B. Conjunctivae
- C. Soles of the feet
- D. Ear lobes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of infection after surgery. What statement indicates further teaching is required?
- A. Redness and swelling are normal after surgery
- B. Any drainage from the incision site is not concerning
- C. Yellow drainage is normal
- D. I should monitor for increased redness or warmth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Any drainage from the incision site should be monitored, and any signs of infection, such as increased redness or warmth, need to be reported to the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D provide accurate information about signs of infection after surgery and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
5. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Pain
- C. Nausea
- D. Gag reflex
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.
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