a nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event which of the following clients should the a nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event which of the following clients should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.

2. A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.

3. When a client is discharged with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), what should the nurse include in client education?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer instructs the client on the appropriate use of nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain or angina. If the chest pain does not subside after taking one tablet, the client should take a maximum of three tablets at 5-minute intervals. If the pain persists after three tablets, it could indicate a heart attack, and emergency medical help should be sought. This education is crucial to ensure the client knows when to seek immediate medical attention.

4. A client with nephropathy secondary to diabetes mellitus is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse and plans to make dietary adjustments. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: Eat at least 45 g of fiber per day.

Rationale: For a client with nephropathy secondary to diabetes mellitus, increasing fiber intake is essential as it can help manage blood sugar levels and improve overall bowel health. Choice A is incorrect because carbohydrates should be controlled but not limited to less than 45% of total calories. Choice B is incorrect as the recommended daily cholesterol intake for individuals with diabetes is less than 200 mg. Choice C is incorrect as protein intake should be individualized based on the client's condition and should not be limited to less than 0.8 g/kg of body weight per day.

5. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

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