Nursing Elites

1. A newborn's parents are being taught about ways to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Place the infant in a prone position to sleep.
• B. Allow the infant to sleep on a large pillow.
• C. Use a soft mattress in the infant's crib.
• D. Give the infant a pacifier at bedtime.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent SIDS is to give the infant a pacifier at bedtime. The use of a pacifier while the infant is sleeping is associated with a decreased risk of SIDS. Placing the infant on their back to sleep is recommended to prevent SIDS, not in a prone position (Choice A). Allowing the infant to sleep on a large pillow (Choice B) is dangerous and increases the risk of SIDS. Using a soft mattress in the infant's crib (Choice C) is also a risk factor for SIDS, so it should be avoided. Additionally, soft bedding or pillows should be avoided to reduce the risk of SIDS.

2. Which statement is true regarding playful children?

• A. They exhibit flexible problem-solving.
• B. They have low intelligence scores.
• C. They need clear rules and directions to succeed.
• D. They do not perform well in school.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that playful children exhibit flexible problem-solving. Playful children often engage in creative and imaginative thinking, allowing them to approach problems in unique ways. This fosters better problem-solving abilities compared to those who may be more rigid in their thinking. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between being playful and having low intelligence scores. Choice C is incorrect as playful children may thrive in environments that encourage creativity rather than rigid rules. Choice D is incorrect as being playful does not necessarily equate to poor academic performance.

3. What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
• B. Dysuria since the previous night
• C. A history of allergy
• D. A sore throat 2 weeks ago

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.

4. Which assessment data would cause suspicion that a 3-year-old child has Hirschsprung disease?

• A. Clay-colored stools and dark urine
• B. History of early passage of meconium in the newborn period
• C. History of chronic, progressive constipation and failure to gain weight
• D. Continual bouts of foul-smelling diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hirschsprung disease is characterized by chronic, progressive constipation and failure to gain weight. These symptoms are indicative of the disorder due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon, leading to impaired motility and obstruction.

5. A child is admitted to the hospital for hypercalcemia and is placed on diuretic therapy. Which diuretic would the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide (Aquazide)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney to increase calcium excretion. In the setting of hypercalcemia, where there is an elevated level of calcium in the blood, Furosemide can help promote the elimination of excess calcium through the urine, thereby aiding in the management of hypercalcemia.

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