ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of testosterone gel for the treatment of hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel after showering, and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- B. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
- C. Apply the gel before bedtime to enhance absorption during sleep.
- D. Apply the gel to the face and neck for improved results.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply testosterone gel after showering and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This helps prevent the transfer of the gel to others and ensures proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because the gel should not be applied to the genitals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to applying the gel before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as the gel should not be applied to the face and neck for the treatment of hypogonadism.
2. A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking NSAIDs while on this medication.
- C. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
- D. Women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.
3. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?
- A. Pseudomembranous colitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Appendicitis
- D. Esophageal cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.
4. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?
- A. Serotonin receptors
- B. Uric acid metabolism
- C. Liver function
- D. Cardiac function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.
5. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
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