Nursing Elites

1. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?

• A. A flexed position
• B. An extended position
• C. A neutral position
• D. A hyperextended position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.

2. A client has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptom requires the nurse's immediate intervention?

• A. Production of pink sputum
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr
• D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Immediate intervention is required if the client exhibits tracheal deviation as it could indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise. Production of pink sputum may indicate bleeding but would not be as immediately life-threatening as tracheal deviation. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr could indicate hemorrhage, which also requires attention but is not as urgent as tracheal deviation. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues, including dislodgment of the tube or pneumothorax, which require intervention but are not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.

3. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

5. A client had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?

• A. Poor impulse control
• B. Inability to discriminate words and letters
• C. Deficits in the right visual field
• D. Motor retardation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stroke affecting the right cerebral hemisphere can lead to poor impulse control due to the involvement of this area in regulating behavior and inhibiting impulses. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with stroke affecting the left cerebral hemisphere. Inability to discriminate words and letters may be seen in left cerebral hemisphere strokes. Motor retardation may be observed with strokes affecting motor areas in either hemisphere but is not the most specific finding related to a right cerebral hemisphere stroke.

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