Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cough
• B. Tremor
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

3. What is the primary intervention for a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion
• B. Administer medication to reverse the symptoms of delirium
• C. Provide opportunities for social interaction to reduce isolation
• D. Encourage the client to remain physically active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion. For clients diagnosed with delirium, creating a tranquil setting can help reduce agitation and disorientation. This intervention aims to decrease stimuli that may exacerbate symptoms. Administering medication (choice B) is not the primary intervention for delirium; it is usually reserved for specific underlying causes. While social interaction (choice C) and physical activity (choice D) are beneficial for overall well-being, they are not the primary interventions for managing delirium.

4. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Pain
• C. Nausea
• D. Gag reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

5. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?

• A. Rubella
• B. Pertussis
• C. Influenza
• D. Varicella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.

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