Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cough
• B. Tremor
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about foods that are included on a clear liquid diet. Which of the following food choices made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Broth
• C. Popsicle
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Yogurt. Yogurt is not part of a clear liquid diet. A clear liquid diet includes transparent or translucent liquids such as gelatin, broth, and popsicles. Yogurt is a thicker consistency and contains solid particles, making it inappropriate for a clear liquid diet. Choices A, B, and C are suitable options for a client following a clear liquid diet.

3. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should be administered?

• A. Fluconazole
• B. Tobramycin
• C. Ciprofloxacin
• D. Vancomycin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic effective in treating anthrax exposure. Fluconazole (Choice A) is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not anthrax. Tobramycin (Choice B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections but is not the first line of treatment for anthrax. Vancomycin (Choice D) is also an antibiotic, but it is not the preferred choice for treating anthrax.

4. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Pain
• C. Nausea
• D. Gag reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

5. A client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Flush the IV line and continue the infusion.
• B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Increase the IV infusion rate to reduce discomfort.
• D. Apply a warm compress to the IV site and continue monitoring.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Pain and swelling at an IV site can indicate infiltration or infection, which are serious complications. Stopping the infusion helps prevent further harm to the client, and notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and intervention. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the IV line and continuing the infusion could exacerbate the issue. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the IV infusion rate is not the appropriate action for pain and swelling at the site. Choice D is incorrect because applying a warm compress may not address the underlying issue of infiltration or infection; it's crucial to stop the infusion and seek further guidance.

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