ATI RN
ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B
1. A client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Ensure the client is on seizure precautions.
- B. Educate the client about seizure triggers.
- C. Monitor for signs of an impending seizure.
- D. Initiate IV access for anti-seizure medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is on seizure precautions. This is crucial in preventing injury during a seizure episode. While educating the client about seizure triggers (choice B) is important for long-term management, it is not the priority when the client is admitted for monitoring. Monitoring for signs of an impending seizure (choice C) is essential but does not address immediate safety concerns. Initiating IV access for anti-seizure medication (choice D) is not the priority unless a seizure occurs and medical intervention is needed.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?
- A. PT of 12 seconds
- B. aPTT of 70 seconds
- C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
- D. INR of 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
3. A healthcare provider writes a prescription for a medication dose three times the normal range. What should the nurse do?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed
- B. Question the prescription with the provider
- C. Consult with the pharmacist about the dosage
- D. Delay the medication until verification can be made
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to question the prescription with the provider. Administering a medication dose three times the normal range without clarification could pose serious risks to the client. Consulting with the pharmacist about the dosage or delaying the medication until verification can be made are not the initial steps to take; the nurse should first clarify the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure patient safety.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Report any urine output greater than 30 mL/hr.
- B. Bruising on the arms and legs.
- C. Positive Trousseau's sign.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bruising on the arms and legs is a sign of bleeding, which is a serious complication of heparin therapy and should be reported immediately to the provider. Option A is incorrect as urine output greater than 30 mL/hr is a normal finding. Option C, positive Trousseau's sign, is associated with hypocalcemia, not heparin therapy. Option D, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range and does not indicate a complication of heparin therapy.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. I will double my dose if I miss one
- B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach between meals
- C. I will take the medication until my sore throat goes away
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I develop itching
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.
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