a client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring what should the nurse prioritize
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. A client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring. What should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is on seizure precautions. This is crucial in preventing injury during a seizure episode. While educating the client about seizure triggers (choice B) is important for long-term management, it is not the priority when the client is admitted for monitoring. Monitoring for signs of an impending seizure (choice C) is essential but does not address immediate safety concerns. Initiating IV access for anti-seizure medication (choice D) is not the priority unless a seizure occurs and medical intervention is needed.

2. A patient recovering from a stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status. Patients recovering from a stroke with difficulty swallowing are at high risk for aspiration, which can lead to serious complications like aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, the priority is to keep the patient on NPO until a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is completed. Choice A is incorrect as feeding the patient soft solids can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as providing ice chips may further compromise swallowing safety. Choice D is incorrect as starting the patient on a clear liquid diet can also increase the risk of aspiration in this scenario.

3. A client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When taking ferrous sulfate, dark tarry stools can occur as a common side effect due to the iron content in the medication. This is a normal response to the medication and not a cause for concern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased bruising, reduced infections, and amber-colored urine are not expected side effects of ferrous sulfate.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

5. A client reports severe pain unrelieved by pain medication in a limb with traction. What is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for compartment syndrome. Severe unrelieved pain in a limb with traction can be a sign of compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency. Prompt assessment is crucial to prevent potential complications. Increasing pain medication dosage without addressing the underlying cause may delay necessary interventions. Waiting for the healthcare provider may lead to a critical delay in treatment. Repositioning the client may not alleviate the pain if it is due to compartment syndrome, and it is crucial to assess for this condition first.

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