a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for phenytoin which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023

1. When teaching a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition characterized by overgrowth of gum tissue. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of gingival hyperplasia, such as swollen or bleeding gums. Good oral hygiene practices are essential to prevent or manage this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause a mild rash, should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, and does not warrant an increase in calcium intake.

2. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole to treat an infection. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid alcohol while taking Metronidazole. This is crucial to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction, which can result in severe nausea and vomiting. Alcohol should be avoided for at least 48 hours after completing the medication course as well. Choice B is incorrect because Metronidazole can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to increase dairy product intake while on Metronidazole. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific instruction to avoid direct sunlight while taking this medication.

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