Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?

• A. I will double my dose if I miss one
• B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach between meals
• C. I will take the medication until my sore throat goes away
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I develop itching

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2. To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg of digoxin, the nurse should administer two 0.125 mg tablets. This calculation ensures that the patient receives the correct amount of medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate dosage needed based on the available tablets and prescribed dose.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

4. When educating a patient with hypertension about lifestyle changes, what is the most crucial advice to provide?

• A. Advise the patient to reduce salt intake.
• B. Instruct the patient to limit alcohol consumption.
• C. Recommend the patient to exercise for 30 minutes every day.
• D. Instruct the patient to avoid high-cholesterol foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical lifestyle change for a patient with hypertension is to reduce salt intake. Excessive salt consumption can lead to increased blood pressure levels. While limiting alcohol consumption (Choice B) and regular exercise (Choice C) are also beneficial for managing hypertension, reducing salt intake has a more direct impact on blood pressure control. Avoiding high-cholesterol foods (Choice D) is important for heart health but may not have as significant an impact on blood pressure as reducing salt intake.

5. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices should be used to deliver a precise oxygen concentration?

• A. Nasal cannula
• B. Simple face mask
• C. Venturi mask
• D. Non-rebreather mask

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A Venturi mask should be used to deliver a precise oxygen concentration to a client with pneumonia. Venturi masks are designed to deliver a specific oxygen concentration by mixing oxygen with room air in a precise ratio. This device is ideal for patients who require accurate oxygen delivery, such as those with chronic lung diseases. Nasal cannulas deliver a lower concentration of oxygen and are more suitable for patients with mild respiratory issues. Simple face masks and non-rebreather masks do not provide as precise control over the oxygen concentration as a Venturi mask.

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