ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A client is being taught about which foods to include in a low fiber diet. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. Choosing a fresh pear would be a good snack option
- B. I should make refried beans for supper
- C. Selecting white rice as a side dish is a good choice
- D. Opting for bran cereal would be a good breakfast choice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because white rice is a low-fiber food suitable for a low-fiber diet, making it an appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fresh pear, refried beans, and bran cereal are high-fiber foods and not suitable for a low-fiber diet.
2. When working with a client who does not speak the same language, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Speak directly to the interpreter
- B. Use family members to translate
- C. Speak directly to the patient
- D. Use medical jargon
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client who does not speak the same language, it is essential for the nurse to speak directly to the patient. This approach helps maintain rapport, establishes a trusting relationship, and ensures better communication. Speaking to the interpreter instead of the patient can lead to misunderstandings and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Using family members to translate is not recommended as they may not provide accurate or confidential information. Lastly, using medical jargon can further complicate communication and may not be understood by the patient.
3. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is aspirin 325mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 2 tablets. Each tablet of aspirin is 325mg. To achieve the required dose of 650mg, the nurse should administer 2 tablets. Choice A (1 tablet) is incorrect because it would only provide 325mg, which is half the required dose. Choices C (3 tablets) and D (4 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the required dose.
5. When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient, what is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Monitor the patient's electrolyte levels.
- B. Assess the patient's blood pressure regularly.
- C. Monitor the patient's heart rate every 4 hours.
- D. Check the patient's urine output hourly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's blood pressure regularly. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient as it helps in evaluating the patient's fluid status. Changes in blood pressure can indicate the effectiveness of the fluid therapy, the patient's response to treatment, and the possibility of complications such as fluid overload or hypovolemia. Monitoring electrolyte levels (Choice A) is essential but not the priority when assessing a dehydrated patient receiving IV fluids. Heart rate (Choice C) should be monitored more frequently than every 4 hours in such a situation. Checking urine output (Choice D) is important but not as critical as assessing blood pressure in this scenario.
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