Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the notes written by a previous shift. Which documentation reflects proper guidelines?

• A. Incomplete entries are acceptable as long as they are justified
• B. Documentation should include objective observations only
• C. Corrections in documentation should be signed and dated
• D. Entries should be modified by another healthcare professional if necessary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper documentation should include objective observations and detailed notes to ensure continuity of care. Choice A is incorrect because incomplete entries can lead to gaps in information and compromise patient care. Choice C is not completely accurate as corrections should be made in a manner that does not obscure the original entry but does not necessarily require a signature. Choice D is incorrect as entries should ideally be corrected by the original author to maintain accountability and accuracy.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an indication of digoxin toxicity to report to the provider?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Vomiting
• C. Ringing in ears
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting. Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Diarrhea (Choice A) is a more common side effect of digoxin but not typically associated with toxicity. Ringing in the ears (Choice C) is a potential sign of toxicity; however, vomiting is a more immediate concern. Dizziness (Choice D) can occur with digoxin use but is not a specific indicator of toxicity.

3. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which of the following inter-professional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting regarding the client's condition?

• A. Speech-language pathologist
• B. Occupational therapist
• C. Dietitian
• D. Pharmacy technician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in evaluating and treating swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia, which commonly occurs following a stroke. They are experts in developing strategies to help individuals improve their ability to swallow safely. Occupational therapists (B) focus on helping individuals regain independence in activities of daily living, not specifically addressing swallowing concerns. Dietitians (C) primarily work on developing appropriate nutrition plans but may not directly address swallowing issues. Pharmacy technicians (D) assist pharmacists in dispensing medications and are not directly involved in managing swallowing difficulties.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed warfarin. What should be included in the teaching?

• A. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K
• B. Take warfarin with meals
• C. Take aspirin for pain relief
• D. Report unusual bleeding or bruising

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client is prescribed warfarin, they should be educated to report any unusual bleeding or bruising promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding foods rich in vitamin K is not necessary when taking warfarin, as long as intake remains consistent. Warfarin does not need to be taken with meals, and aspirin should not be taken for pain relief due to its blood-thinning effects, which can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with warfarin.

5. The patient experienced a surgical procedure, and Betadine was utilized as the surgical prep. Two days postoperatively, the nurse's assessment indicates that the incision is red and has a small amount of purulent drainage. The patient reports tenderness at the incision site. The patient's temperature is 100.5°F, and the WBC is 10,500/mm³. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reevaluate the temperature and white blood cell count in 4 hours.
• B. Check which solution was used for skin preparation in surgery.
• C. Plan to change the surgical dressing during the shift.
• D. Utilize SBAR to notify the primary health care provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of a possible surgical site infection, including redness, purulent drainage, tenderness, elevated temperature, and increased white blood cell count. These symptoms suggest the need for immediate action to address a potential complication. Utilizing SBAR to notify the primary health care provider is crucial as it allows for effective communication of the patient's condition and the need for further assessment and intervention. Reevaluating the temperature and white blood cell count later, checking the solution used for skin preparation, or planning to change the dressing do not address the urgent need for intervention and communication with the healthcare provider.

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