Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed warfarin. What should be included in the teaching?

• A. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K
• B. Take warfarin with meals
• C. Take aspirin for pain relief
• D. Report unusual bleeding or bruising

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client is prescribed warfarin, they should be educated to report any unusual bleeding or bruising promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding foods rich in vitamin K is not necessary when taking warfarin, as long as intake remains consistent. Warfarin does not need to be taken with meals, and aspirin should not be taken for pain relief due to its blood-thinning effects, which can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with warfarin.

2. A client is prescribed 1g of potassium phosphate IV to be infused continuously over 6 hr. Available is 1 g in 250 ml of dextrose 5%. What rate should the nurse set the IV pump to run at?

• A. 40 ml/hr
• B. 42 ml/hr
• C. 44 ml/hr
• D. 46 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the IV rate, divide the total volume by the total time in hours. In this case, 1 g in 250 ml is to be infused over 6 hours. Therefore, 250 ml / 6 hr = 42 ml/hr. This means the IV pump should be set to run at 42 ml/hr. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate based on the provided information.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cough
• B. Tremor
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.

4. A client with renal calculi is admitted. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor urinary output every shift.
• B. Administer pain medication as ordered.
• C. Strain all urine for stones.
• D. Increase fluid intake to flush the urinary tract.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to strain all urine for stones. This is the priority nursing intervention for a client with renal calculi as it helps in identifying and preventing stones from passing unnoticed. Monitoring urinary output, administering pain medication, and increasing fluid intake are important aspects of care for this client, but the priority is to ensure that any passed stones are collected and analyzed to guide further treatment.

5. Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?

• A. Sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are to be considered contaminated.
• B. Items in a sterile package must be used immediately once the package has been opened; otherwise, they are considered contaminated.
• C. Any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is sterile as long as it is not touched.
• D. The edge of a sterile field and a border 1 inch (2.5 cm) inward is unsterile.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.

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