a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery which of the following findings should t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F) is above the normal range and indicates a fever, which is a concerning finding postoperatively. Fever can be a sign of infection, so the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within expected parameters for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 90/min, serosanguineous drainage in the surgical drain, and a urinary output of 60 mL/hr are all common postoperative findings that do not raise immediate concerns.

2. While caring for a client with an arterial line, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining arterial blood gases is a crucial nursing action when caring for a client with an arterial line. This procedure helps assess the client's oxygenation status and acid-base balance accurately. Leveling the transducer with the client's phlebotomy site (A) is important for accurate pressure measurements, but it is not the primary action in this scenario. Flushing the arterial line every 8 hours (B) is a routine maintenance procedure and not the immediate priority. Keeping the client's hand elevated above the heart level (D) is a good practice to prevent swelling, but it is not directly related to the arterial line care in this case.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

4. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.

5. What is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient receiving digoxin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient receiving digoxin because it can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) and Hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not directly related to digoxin therapy and do not pose the same risk of toxicity.

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