ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a female client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following laboratory results would be a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. BUN 21 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL)
- B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
- C. Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL (0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL)
- D. Sodium 132 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with hypovolemia, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L to the provider. Hypovolemia can lead to electrolyte imbalances, and hyperkalemia (potassium level above 5.0 mEq/L) is a serious condition that can result in cardiac arrhythmias and requires immediate attention. The other laboratory results, BUN, creatinine, and sodium, are also important in assessing renal function and fluid balance, but the priority in this case is the elevated potassium level due to its potential life-threatening complications.
2. Horizontal violence may be observed among staff interactions and causes stress among staff. To minimize stress associated with such interactions, nurses can: (Select all that apply.)
- A. Encourage venting as a way to express feelings.
- B. Take control of the situation by being assertive.
- C. Ignore staff who are volatile.
- D. Avoid interactions with angry staff.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To minimize stress associated with horizontal violence among staff interactions, nurses should take control of the situation by being assertive. Being assertive allows nurses to address the issues causing stress in a constructive and professional manner. Encouraging venting without addressing the underlying problems may not resolve the situation effectively. Ignoring staff who are volatile can escalate the issue further, and avoiding interactions with angry staff does not address the root cause of the problem. Therefore, being assertive and addressing the situation directly is the most effective approach to minimize stress and promote a healthy work environment.
3. What is the primary role of a nurse in an interdisciplinary team?
- A. To lead the healthcare team
- B. To advocate for the patient
- C. To provide emotional support to the patient
- D. To ensure compliance with regulations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'To advocate for the patient.' Nurses play a crucial role in interdisciplinary teams by ensuring that the patient's needs and preferences are considered in the care plan. While leadership (Choice A) can be a part of a nurse's responsibilities in certain situations, the primary role is patient advocacy. Providing emotional support (Choice C) is important but not the primary role in an interdisciplinary team. Ensuring compliance with regulations (Choice D) is important but not the primary focus when working within an interdisciplinary team.
4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
- A. Perceived conflict
- B. Disruptive conflict
- C. Competitive conflict
- D. Felt conflict
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.
5. What are the final stages of the conflict process?
- A. Antecedent conditions
- B. Perceived and felt conflict
- C. Suppression and resolution
- D. Conflict behavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.
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