Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. You should not use this medication for an acute asthma attack.'
• B. Tremors may be an adverse effect of this medication.'
• C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
• D. This medication can inhibit skeletal growth.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors may occur as a result of excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles when using Albuterol. It is important to educate the parent about potential adverse effects to ensure proper monitoring and management of the adolescent client's medication regimen.

2. A client is starting a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.' Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice helps enhance the absorption of iron due to the ascorbic acid present in the orange juice, which aids in iron absorption. This combination can help improve the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, taking the medication with meals, may reduce gastrointestinal side effects but does not specifically enhance absorption. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, may lead to better absorption but can also increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D, taking the medication with a full glass of milk, is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit the absorption of iron.

3. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

4. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Sedation
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Productive cough
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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