ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- B. You might experience palpitations while taking this medication.
- C. You should rinse your mouth after using this medication.
- D. You should avoid eating before taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You should rinse your mouth after using this medication.' When providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed albuterol, the nurse should include the instruction to rinse the mouth after each use. This is important to prevent dry mouth and oral infections. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is usually taken during the day to manage symptoms, not at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as palpitations are not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before taking albuterol.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should have my vision checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. This medication can cause my urine to turn reddish-orange.
- C. I need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing while taking this medication.
- D. I will discontinue this medication if I experience nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by observing which of the following?
- A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields
- B. The client reports feeling less anxious
- C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
- D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because when a client reports feeling less anxious, it suggests that the treatment for a pulmonary embolism is effective. This is a good indicator of the client's overall well-being and response to treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a chest x-ray revealing increased density in all fields, diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally, and ABG results showing specific values do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. While these assessments are important for monitoring the client's condition, the client's subjective report of feeling less anxious provides a more direct insight into the impact of the treatment.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
- A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
- B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
- C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm of the edge of the sterile field.
- D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm below waist level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When setting up a sterile field for a dressing change, the nurse should open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body. This action helps maintain the sterility of the field by minimizing the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the cap from the solution should be placed sterile side down to prevent contamination. Option C is incorrect because the sterile dressing should be placed at least 1.25 cm away from the edge of the sterile field to maintain its sterility. Option D is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent potential contamination from reaching the field.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
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