Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.

2. A client in the emergency department has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer flumazenil.
• B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
• C. Infuse IV fluids.
• D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client presents with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client. By identifying the client's level of orientation, the nurse can gather crucial information about the client's mental status, which is essential for determining the appropriate care and interventions needed. Administering flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines but should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Infusing IV fluids and preparing for gastric lavage may be necessary interventions but should follow a thorough assessment of the client's condition to ensure proper prioritization of care.

3. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid smoking while taking this medication.
• C. Increase intake of dairy products.
• D. Expect a yellow tinge to the skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease is to avoid smoking while taking the medication. Smoking can interfere with the effectiveness of ranitidine and worsen ulcer symptoms. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to abstain from smoking to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ranitidine with or without food does not significantly affect its effectiveness, there is no specific need to increase intake of dairy products, and expecting a yellow tinge to the skin is not a common side effect associated with Ranitidine.

4. When educating a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, which manifestation should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dry cough
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril. This cough can be bothersome and may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to explore potential alternatives or adjustments to the treatment plan. Tremors, drowsiness, and hyperactivity are not commonly associated with enalapril and are less likely to be attributed to this medication.

5. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

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