Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Drinking alcohol with Metronidazole can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and flushing. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol consumption during the course of treatment with Metronidazole.

2. Medications classified as angiotensin II receptor agents typically end in?

• A. Sartan
• B. Ase
• C. Olol
• D. Pril

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents belong to the drug class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). The generic names of ARBs usually end in -sartan, helping to identify this specific class of medications. Therefore, medications that end in -sartan are likely to be angiotensin II receptor agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because drugs ending in -ase (like streptokinase), -olol (like propranolol), and -pril (like lisinopril) typically belong to different drug classes with distinct mechanisms of action.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

4. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina asks the nurse to explain possible side effects. What should NOT be included in client teaching?

• A. Reflex tachycardia
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hyponatremia is not a common side effect associated with nitroglycerin use. Nitroglycerin typically causes side effects such as reflex tachycardia, dizziness, and hypotension due to its vasodilatory effects. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to educate the client about these potential side effects to promote understanding and appropriate management.

5. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.

Similar Questions