Nursing Elites

1. When providing discharge instructions for a patient with diabetes, what is the most important information to include?

• A. Encourage the patient to maintain a high-carbohydrate diet.
• B. Teach the patient how to monitor their blood sugar levels.
• C. Recommend the patient engage in regular exercise.
• D. Provide the patient with a list of restricted foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical information to include when providing discharge instructions for a patient with diabetes is teaching them how to monitor their blood sugar levels. This empowers the patient to actively manage their condition, make informed decisions about their diet and medication, and prevent complications. Encouraging a high-carbohydrate diet (Choice A) can be detrimental for diabetic patients as it may lead to unstable blood sugar levels. While regular exercise (Choice C) is important in diabetes management, monitoring blood sugar levels takes precedence. Providing a list of restricted foods (Choice D) is relevant but not as crucial as teaching the patient how to monitor their blood sugar levels.

2. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

3. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?

• A. Jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex
• B. Hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema
• C. Dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea
• D. Pulmonary congestion and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.

4. What is the most appropriate method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

• A. Insert a urinary catheter using clean gloves.
• B. Limit the duration of catheter use.
• C. Use a smaller size catheter to prevent trauma.
• D. Change the catheter tubing every 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit the duration of catheter use. Limiting the duration of catheterization is a crucial method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). Prolonged catheter use increases the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, leading to infections. Using clean gloves for insertion (choice A) is important for preventing contamination but does not address the main cause of CAUTIs. Using a smaller size catheter (choice C) may help reduce trauma but does not directly prevent infections. Changing the catheter tubing every 24 hours (choice D) is not necessary unless clinically indicated, and it is not the most effective method for preventing CAUTIs.

5. What is the recommended procedure for a healthcare professional to follow when applying sterile gloves?

• A. Use non-sterile gloves first, followed by sterile gloves.
• B. Put on sterile gloves, then gown.
• C. Apply gloves after donning a mask.
• D. Apply gloves before touching any sterile equipment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct procedure for applying sterile gloves is to do so before touching any sterile equipment or surfaces. This helps maintain the sterility of the gloves. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest incorrect sequences that may compromise the sterility of the gloves. Using non-sterile gloves first can introduce contamination, putting on gloves before a gown can lead to contamination of the gloves during gowning, and applying gloves after donning a mask can risk contamination of the gloves from the mask.

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