Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
• C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
• D. Administer the medication using a filter needle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.

2. A client is being discharged two days after a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wear a tight-fitting bra for support.
• B. Avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
• C. Sleep on the affected side to promote healing.
• D. Begin arm exercises 24 hours after surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks after a mastectomy. This is important to prevent complications and promote proper healing. Choice A is incorrect because tight-fitting bras can increase the risk of lymphedema and discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as sleeping on the affected side can cause discomfort and interfere with healing. Choice D is incorrect as initiating arm exercises too soon after surgery can strain the surgical site and hinder recovery.

3. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 88/min
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.

4. A client in active labor has ruptured membranes. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a fetal heart rate monitor.
• B. Initiate fundal massage.
• C. Administer oxytocin IV.
• D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client in active labor has ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This is crucial for continuous monitoring of the baby's heart rate and ensuring fetal well-being. Initiating fundal massage may be indicated for uterine atony after delivery, not for ruptured membranes during labor. Administering oxytocin IV could be appropriate in some cases to augment labor, but it is not the immediate priority after ruptured membranes. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary solely based on ruptured membranes; it may be indicated for specific situations like epidural anesthesia where the client cannot void.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. JVD.
• C. Crackles in the lungs.
• D. Hypotension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.

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