Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
• C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
• D. Administer the medication using a filter needle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.

2. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the unit due to a staffing shortage. Which of the following clients should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
• B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube.
• D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube can be delegated to an LPN as this involves routine postoperative care. Option A involves administering packed RBCs which requires assessment and monitoring for potential adverse reactions, not suitable for delegation to an LPN. Option B requires neurological assessment and close monitoring due to the concussion, which is beyond the scope of an LPN. Option D involves a client with a recent fracture and shortness of breath, which requires urgent assessment and intervention beyond the LPN's scope of practice.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage on the dressing
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Heart rate of 62/min
• D. Left foot is cool to the touch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.
• B. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
• D. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.' When taking prednisone, clients should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choice B is incorrect because prednisone is usually taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect because clients should not stop taking prednisone abruptly, even if they experience nausea. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be tapered off gradually under healthcare provider guidance instead of being stopped abruptly after 2 weeks.

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