Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
• C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
• D. Administer the medication using a filter needle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased bilirubin levels
• B. Decreased prothrombin time
• C. Decreased albumin levels
• D. Increased prothrombin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.

3. How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Increase fluid intake
• C. Provide oral fluids
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min
• D. Dark, tarry stools

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious side effect of enoxaparin that requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the adverse effects of enoxaparin, so they do not take precedence over the urgent concern of gastrointestinal bleeding.

5. What is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism in a patient?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Administer anticoagulants
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels in the blood when there is a suspected blockage in the pulmonary artery. Administering anticoagulants, although important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism, is not the first step as ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Repositioning the patient or administering IV fluids are not the primary interventions for a suspected pulmonary embolism and are not as essential as providing oxygen support.

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