Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
• C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
• D. Administer the medication using a filter needle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by observing which of the following?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because when a client reports feeling less anxious, it suggests that the treatment for a pulmonary embolism is effective. This is a good indicator of the client's overall well-being and response to treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a chest x-ray revealing increased density in all fields, diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally, and ABG results showing specific values do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. While these assessments are important for monitoring the client's condition, the client's subjective report of feeling less anxious provides a more direct insight into the impact of the treatment.

3. What is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism in a patient?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Administer anticoagulants
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels in the blood when there is a suspected blockage in the pulmonary artery. Administering anticoagulants, although important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism, is not the first step as ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Repositioning the patient or administering IV fluids are not the primary interventions for a suspected pulmonary embolism and are not as essential as providing oxygen support.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension, and a nurse is teaching about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day.
• B. Increase your intake of high-fat foods.
• C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
• D. Limit your potassium intake to 3,000 mg per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Limiting sodium intake helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen hypertension by contributing to weight gain and other cardiovascular risks. Choice C is incorrect as green, leafy vegetables are beneficial for hypertension due to their high potassium and other nutrient content. Choice D is incorrect as limiting potassium intake is typically not recommended for hypertension management unless specified by a healthcare provider.

5. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. What information should be included?

• A. This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds.
• B. This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming.
• C. The child usually has an aura prior to onset.
• D. This type of seizure has a gradual onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because absence seizures are brief and can be mistaken for daydreaming. Choice A is incorrect because absence seizures typically last a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. Choice C is incorrect as absence seizures usually occur suddenly without an aura. Choice D is incorrect because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.

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