a nurse is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications when administering potassium chloride IV is to infuse the medication slowly using an IV pump. Rapid administration of potassium chloride can lead to complications such as hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not promote the safe administration of potassium chloride. Administering the medication by IV bolus over 2 minutes is too rapid and can cause adverse effects. Adding the medication to an IV solution of D5W or diluting it in sterile water may not control the rate of administration, increasing the risk of complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following client histories is a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Uncontrolled hypertension. Clopidogrel should not be administered to clients with uncontrolled hypertension due to the increased risk of bleeding. Recent surgery, peptic ulcer disease, and bleeding disorders are not absolute contraindications for clopidogrel administration.

4. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer bisacodyl suppository to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when administering a bisacodyl suppository is to lubricate the index finger for easier insertion. Using a rectal applicator for insertion is not recommended for bisacodyl suppositories. Positioning the client supine with knees bent is not necessary for the administration of a bisacodyl suppository. While wearing gloves is important for infection control, sterile gloves are not required for this procedure.

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