a nurse is preparing to administer an iv medication to a client who has an allergy to latex which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.

3. What should be monitored when administering opioids to a patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering opioids, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression, which is a serious side effect of opioid use. Monitoring blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to assess a patient's overall condition, but they are not the primary focus when administering opioids.

4. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's abdominal girth daily. Measuring abdominal girth helps monitor for ascites, a common complication of cirrhosis. Limiting sodium intake is important in cirrhosis but there is no specific value given, making choice A less precise. Monitoring urine specific gravity is not directly related to cirrhosis management, making choice C incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially those with fluid restrictions, so choice D is not the most appropriate intervention.

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