Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
• B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
• D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. When a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations says, 'It's hard not to listen to the voices,' which question should the nurse ask?

• A. Do you understand that the voices are not real?
• B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
• C. Have you tried going to a private place when this occurs?
• D. What helps you ignore what you are hearing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the client who experiences auditory hallucinations and finds it hard not to listen to the voices is, 'What helps you ignore what you are hearing?' This question focuses on promoting coping strategies and therapeutic communication, encouraging the client to share what techniques or interventions have been effective for managing the auditory hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect because it assumes the client does not understand that the voices are not real, which may not be the case. Choice B delves into the reasons behind the voices, which may not be immediately helpful in managing the current situation. Choice C suggests a physical solution of going to a private place, which may not address the underlying issue of coping with the voices.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
• C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
• D. Albumin 4 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Blood glucose level
• C. Serum albumin level
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient on furosemide for fluid balance?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Check for edema
• C. Monitor input and output
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring a patient's daily weight is crucial when assessing fluid balance in individuals prescribed furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt. Changes in weight can reflect fluid shifts, making daily weight monitoring a reliable indicator of fluid status. While checking for edema and monitoring input and output are essential aspects of fluid balance assessment, they may not provide as immediate and quantifiable information as daily weight measurements. Monitoring blood pressure is important in patients on furosemide due to its potential to affect blood pressure levels, but it is not as directly indicative of fluid balance as daily weight monitoring.

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