ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
- B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
- C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
- D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.
2. A client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty is at risk for hip dislocation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent this complication?
- A. Position the client supine with a pillow between the legs
- B. Place a pillow under the client's knees
- C. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs
- D. Place a trochanter roll under the client's legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the hip from dislocating. This position aids in keeping the hip in a neutral or slightly outwardly rotated position, reducing the risk of dislocation. Placing the client supine with a pillow between the legs (Choice A) or using a trochanter roll (Choice D) may not provide the same level of abduction and support needed to prevent hip dislocation. Placing a pillow under the client's knees (Choice B) does not provide the necessary support to maintain proper hip alignment in this situation.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Keep the affected leg elevated as needed.
- B. Apply ice packs to the affected knee as prescribed.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate as soon as possible.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises as instructed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to ambulate as soon as possible is essential in preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis post knee arthroplasty. While keeping the affected leg elevated and applying ice packs can be beneficial in certain situations, early ambulation takes precedence in this case. Performing range-of-motion exercises hourly may not be necessary and could potentially cause more harm than good if not done correctly or excessively.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with orange juice to increase absorption.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication with milk if it causes stomach upset.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. Orange juice is recommended because of its vitamin C content, which aids in the absorption of iron. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is better absorbed with food. Choice C, taking the medication with milk if it causes stomach upset, is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D, taking the medication at bedtime, is incorrect as it is usually recommended to take iron supplements between meals or with food to enhance absorption.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
- B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
- D. Client reports dyspnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.
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