Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
• B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
• D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor platelet count
• B. Monitor PT/INR
• C. Monitor aPTT
• D. Monitor CBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT for a patient receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess and adjust heparin dosage to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Monitoring the aPTT helps in preventing both clotting and bleeding complications. Platelet count (Choice A) is important to monitor for patients receiving antiplatelet therapy, not heparin. PT/INR (Choice B) is typically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring the complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) is essential for various conditions but is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

3. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a history of falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Keep all four side rails up.
• B. Ensure the client's bed is in the lowest position.
• C. Use nonskid footwear while ambulating.
• D. Place a bedside commode close to the client's bed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use nonskid footwear while ambulating.' This action is crucial in preventing falls in clients with a history of falls as it provides better traction and stability while walking. Choice A, 'Keep all four side rails up,' is not recommended as it can lead to client restraint and is not a fall prevention strategy. Choice B, 'Ensure the client's bed is in the lowest position,' is important for preventing injuries from falls out of bed but does not directly address fall prevention during ambulation. Choice D, 'Place a bedside commode close to the client's bed,' is a good practice for toileting safety but does not specifically address preventing falls while walking.

5. A client with heart failure is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid overload?

• A. Dry, hacking cough
• B. Bounding peripheral pulses
• C. Decreased urinary output
• D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with heart failure, decreased urinary output is a classic sign of fluid overload. The kidneys try to compensate for the increased volume by reducing urine output, leading to fluid retention. A dry, hacking cough (choice A) is more indicative of heart failure complications like pulmonary edema. Bounding peripheral pulses (choice B) are a sign of increased volume, but not specifically fluid overload. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours (choice D) is not indicative of fluid overload but rather rapid fluid loss.

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