a nurse is preparing to administer an iv medication to a client who has an allergy to latex which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation. Aspirin is a common medication given during the early stages of a heart attack to prevent additional clotting. Administering nitroglycerin may also be indicated to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in preventing clot progression. Administering morphine is not typically the first intervention in myocardial infarction as it can mask symptoms and delay other critical treatments. Surgery is not an immediate priority in the initial management of a myocardial infarction.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because albuterol is used to treat shortness of breath during an asthma attack. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is a rescue medication used during an asthma attack, not for prevention. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol should not be taken with daily vitamins. Choice D is incorrect as albuterol is not typically taken at bedtime for asthma prevention.

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