Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
• B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
• D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. You should avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. You should take this medication with meals to improve absorption.
• D. Take this medication before bed to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals to improve absorption and reduce gastrointestinal upset. Metformin is typically recommended to be taken with food to minimize side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated as metformin does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not cause drowsiness, so there is no need to take it before bed.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Keep the residual limb flat on the bed
• B. Elevate the residual limb on a pillow
• C. Place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes 4 times a day
• D. Keep the residual limb dependent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes four times a day. This position helps prevent contractures after an amputation by stretching the hip flexors and preventing shortening of the residual limb. Keeping the residual limb flat on the bed (Choice A) may lead to contractures. Elevating the residual limb on a pillow (Choice B) can also cause contractures and hinder proper healing. Keeping the residual limb dependent (Choice D) is not recommended as it does not promote proper positioning and circulation.

4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.''
• B. ''I should report a red rash to my provider.''
• C. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a cough.''
• D. ''I should expect black, tarry stools.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.

5. A client, 12 hours postpartum, reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. The client's report of not having a bowel movement for 4 days indicates constipation, and Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps initiate bowel movements. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and osmotic laxative used for indigestion, not for constipation. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat heartburn, not constipation. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent and would be contraindicated in a client experiencing constipation.

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