a nurse is preparing to administer an iv medication to a client who has an allergy to latex which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms of Crohn's disease. This eating pattern can help manage symptoms by reducing the workload on the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because foods high in fiber can aggravate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice B is incorrect because not all individuals with Crohn's disease need to avoid dairy products, and it is not a universal recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because increasing whole grains may not be suitable for everyone with Crohn's disease, as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.

5. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient who is experiencing confusion after surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate initial response to a patient experiencing confusion after surgery. Confusion can be a sign of hypoxia, which is inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Administering oxygen helps ensure that the patient is getting enough oxygen, addressing a potential cause of the confusion. Repositioning the patient, encouraging deep breathing exercises, or performing a neurological exam may be necessary depending on the situation, but addressing potential hypoxia should be the priority in a confused post-operative patient.

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