ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
- B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 minutes.
- C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
- D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hours of manifestation onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.
2. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.
3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for furosemide, a diuretic, is to take it in the morning to prevent nocturia. Taking it in the morning helps to prevent frequent urination during the night, allowing the client to have uninterrupted sleep. This timing also coincides with the body's natural diuretic response, which is typically more active during the day. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding foods high in potassium, taking it on an empty stomach, or limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic angina. Treatment for the condition has been unsuccessful. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Sildenafil (Viagra)
- D. Ranolazine (Ranexa)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of chronic angina where initial treatment has not been successful, Ranolazine (Ranexa) is often prescribed. This medication helps by reducing the frequency of angina episodes. Atenolol, Nitroglycerin, and Sildenafil are also used in angina management but Ranolazine is more specifically indicated in cases of refractory angina where other treatments have failed.
5. A client is starting a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- D. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.' Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice helps enhance the absorption of iron due to the ascorbic acid present in the orange juice, which aids in iron absorption. This combination can help improve the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, taking the medication with meals, may reduce gastrointestinal side effects but does not specifically enhance absorption. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, may lead to better absorption but can also increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D, taking the medication with a full glass of milk, is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit the absorption of iron.
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