ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
- B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 minutes.
- C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
- D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hours of manifestation onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.
2. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
4. A patient is on a low-sodium diet. Which food item should the patient avoid?
- A. Fresh fruit
- B. Canned soup
- C. Whole grain bread
- D. Grilled chicken
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Canned soup. Canned soup is commonly high in sodium content, which is not suitable for a patient on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruit, whole grain bread, and grilled chicken typically have lower sodium levels and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Therefore, the patient should avoid canned soup to adhere to the requirements of a low-sodium diet.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates the client might be experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Distended neck veins
- C. Chills and fever
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chills and fever are classic signs of an acute hemolytic reaction, where the body is reacting to the transfused blood. This reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Low back pain, distended neck veins, and headache are not typical signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. Low back pain may be associated with kidney issues, distended neck veins with fluid overload or heart failure, and headache with various causes such as stress, dehydration, or migraines.
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