a nurse is planning to administer iv alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive pulmonary embolism which of the following

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 minutes.
C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hours of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.

2. A client with Graves' disease is being educated by a nurse about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heartbeat.
D. Propranolol promotes a decrease of thyroid hormone in my body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that is commonly used in Graves' disease to decrease symptoms such as tremors and fast heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland. Choice B is incorrect as Propranolol is not used to prevent excess glucose in the blood. Choice D is also incorrect as Propranolol does not directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body.

3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Organic nitrates
C. Alpha blockers
D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Warfarin. Which of the following dietary instructions should the provider include?

A. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
D. Avoid foods high in iron.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, should be limited in the diet of individuals taking Warfarin to maintain a consistent level of the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as increasing intake of leafy green vegetables (choice A) and dairy products (choice C) may increase the intake of vitamin K, which is not recommended, and avoiding foods high in iron (choice D) is not directly related to Warfarin therapy.

5. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

A. Flumazenil
B. Methylene blue
C. Deferoxamine
D. Alkalinize urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.