Nursing Elites

1. A client is 12 hours postoperative following colon resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to reduce respiratory complications?

• A. Use incentive spirometer every 4 hours while awake.
• B. Initiate ambulation after discontinuing the NG tube.
• C. Maintain a supine position with an abdominal binder.
• D. Splint the incision to support coughing every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a colon resection surgery, it is essential to support the incision site to reduce the risk of respiratory complications. Splinting the incision helps to minimize pain during coughing, aiding in effective clearing of secretions and preventing respiratory problems. This intervention supports the client's respiratory function postoperatively, promoting optimal recovery.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

3. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
• B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
• C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
• D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min now has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• C. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• D. Assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness. This assessment helps determine if the decreased respiratory rate is affecting the client's oxygenation. By evaluating the client's mental status and level of consciousness, the nurse can promptly identify any signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia, allowing for timely intervention and appropriate adjustments to the oxygen therapy or other treatments.

5. During pulmonary hygiene for a client with pneumonia, a nurse positions the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position. From which of the following lung segments should the nurse expect secretions to be mobilized with the client in this position?

• A. Lateral segment of the left lower lobe
• B. Lateral segment of the right lower lobe
• C. Posterior segment of the right middle lobe
• D. Posterior segment of the right lower lobe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is positioned on the left side in Trendelenburg position for pulmonary hygiene, secretions are expected to be mobilized from the lateral segment of the right lower lobe. This positioning helps facilitate drainage and clearance of secretions from this specific area of the lung, aiding in overall pulmonary hygiene and improving ventilation.

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