ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. A nurse is planning an educational program for a group of older adults at a senior living center. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. You should receive a pneumococcal vaccine when you are 65 years old.
- B. You should receive a shingles vaccine when you are 70 years old.
- C. You should receive a tetanus booster every 5 years.
- D. You should have an eye examination every 2 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The CDC recommends a pneumococcal vaccine for all adults aged 65 years and older. This vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal disease. Choice B is incorrect as the shingles vaccine is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older, not specifically at 70 years. Choice C is incorrect because a tetanus booster is recommended every 10 years, not every 5 years. Choice D is incorrect as the general recommendation for eye examinations in older adults is annually, not every 2 years.
2. A nurse manager is interested in solving a serious conflict that exists among the nursing staff. He uses a strategy that involves allowing the group to explore a number of solutions and come to a consensus on a solution. What strategy for conflict resolution has the manager used?
- A. Integrative decision-making
- B. Win-win
- C. Competing
- D. Confrontation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Integrative decision-making. Integrative decision-making involves allowing a group to explore various solutions and work together to reach a consensus. This strategy focuses on collaboration and finding a solution that meets the needs of all parties involved. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. 'Win-win' is another term for integrative decision-making, 'Competing' involves pursuing one's own interests at the expense of others, and 'Confrontation' implies a direct conflict rather than a collaborative approach to resolution.
3. What is the role of a nurse in a multidisciplinary team (MDT)?
- A. To lead the MDT
- B. To provide emotional support
- C. To advocate for patient needs
- D. To conduct clinical research
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a multidisciplinary team (MDT), a nurse's role is to advocate for patient needs and ensure their perspectives are considered in the care plan. While leadership may be a part of a nurse's role in some settings, the primary focus in an MDT is collaboration and coordination. Providing emotional support is essential but may not be the primary role of a nurse in an MDT. Conducting clinical research is typically not a direct responsibility of a nurse in an MDT focused on patient care.
4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
- A. Perceived conflict
- B. Disruptive conflict
- C. Competitive conflict
- D. Felt conflict
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.
5. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to
- A. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved
- B. limit calorie intake until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL
- C. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise
- D. decrease carbohydrate intake until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should advise the patient to monitor her blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. This is important because the patient is experiencing symptoms of an illness (sore throat and runny nose) that can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. By monitoring frequently, any significant rise in blood glucose can be detected early, enabling prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping glargine (Lantus) insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake is not the appropriate immediate action for managing high blood glucose levels. Choice D is also incorrect as adjusting carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
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