Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning an educational program for a group of older adults at a senior living center. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. You should receive a pneumococcal vaccine when you are 65 years old.
• B. You should receive a shingles vaccine when you are 70 years old.
• C. You should receive a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• D. You should have an eye examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The CDC recommends a pneumococcal vaccine for all adults aged 65 years and older. This vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal disease. Choice B is incorrect as the shingles vaccine is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older, not specifically at 70 years. Choice C is incorrect because a tetanus booster is recommended every 10 years, not every 5 years. Choice D is incorrect as the general recommendation for eye examinations in older adults is annually, not every 2 years.

2. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

3. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?

• A. Administering immunizations
• B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
• C. Routine health screenings
• D. Health education campaigns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

4. Professionalism has historically been difficult to define. Early definitions of professionalism included which of the following characteristics?

• A. Expertise
• B. Empathy
• C. Ethical and moral values
• D. Honesty

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expertise.' Historically, professionalism was defined by one's knowledge and expertise in a particular field. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because early definitions of professionalism did not focus on qualities like empathy, ethical and moral values, or honesty, but rather on the individual's level of skill and competence in their area of work.

5. The nurse determines a need for additional instruction when the patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes says which of the following?

• A. �I can have an occasional alcoholic drink if I include it in my meal plan.�
• B. �I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin.�
• C. �I can choose any foods, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories.�
• D. �I will eat something at meal times to prevent hypoglycemia, even if I am not hungry.�

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

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