ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?
- A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
- B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
- C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
- D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
2. During a manic episode, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
- B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
- C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
- D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.
3. Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Sexual dysfunction
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a commonly reported side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). SSRIs can affect sexual function by causing issues such as decreased libido, delayed ejaculation, erectile dysfunction, or anorgasmia. Patients should be educated about these potential side effects when starting SSRIs to facilitate informed decision-making and appropriate management strategies. Incorrect Choices: A) Hypotension is not a common side effect of SSRIs. C) Increased appetite is not a common side effect of SSRIs. D) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of SSRIs.
4. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.
5. Which of the following statements should a healthcare professional recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select the one that doesn't apply.
- A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
- B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
- C. They are used in an effort to relieve mild to moderate anxiety.
- D. They are protective devices for the superego.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego in the face of threats to biological and psychological integrity to relieve mild to moderate anxiety. They act as protective devices for the ego, not the id or superego. The id represents primal instincts, while the superego is associated with moral standards. Defense mechanisms help individuals cope with stressors by redirecting focus and are often unconscious and self-deceptive.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access