Nursing Elites

1. A toddler has minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) and 3+ pitting edema. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage an increased fluid intake for the toddler
• B. Place the child in an Airborne infection isolation room
• C. Increase the toddler's dietary sodium intake
• D. Administer corticosteroids to the toddler

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) in children with pitting edema, corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and decrease proteinuria, addressing the underlying cause of MCNS. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize administering the prescribed corticosteroids to the toddler as part of the plan of care.

2. Which statement best describes the recommended approach to increase participation as the focus of intervention with children and youth?

• A. Remediate areas of concern and the child's limitations
• B. Intervene with family and friends to interact differently with the child
• C. Promote the child's strengths and allow the child to accommodate challenges
• D. Evaluate the child's areas of competence and achievement, along with challenges

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The recommended approach to intervention with children and youth focuses on evaluating the child's areas of competence and achievement, along with challenges. By understanding the child's strengths and competencies, interventions can be tailored to build upon these existing positive attributes. This approach fosters a positive self-image and encourages further development by capitalizing on the child's strengths.

3. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Increased protein in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

4. Which statement regarding the human papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil) is true?

• A. Gardasil is administered in a two-dose series.
• B. Gardasil provides protection against chlamydia.
• C. Gardasil is recommended for males and females.
• D. Gardasil becomes effective after the first dose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gardasil is recommended for both males and females to protect against HPV and related conditions such as genital warts and certain cancers. It is essential for both genders to receive the vaccine to prevent the spread of HPV and its associated health risks.

5. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

Similar Questions