Nursing Elites

1. A toddler has minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) and 3+ pitting edema. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage an increased fluid intake for the toddler
• B. Place the child in an Airborne infection isolation room
• C. Increase the toddler's dietary sodium intake
• D. Administer corticosteroids to the toddler

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) in children with pitting edema, corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and decrease proteinuria, addressing the underlying cause of MCNS. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize administering the prescribed corticosteroids to the toddler as part of the plan of care.

2. A newborn's parents are being taught about ways to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Place the infant in a prone position to sleep.
• B. Allow the infant to sleep on a large pillow.
• C. Use a soft mattress in the infant's crib.
• D. Give the infant a pacifier at bedtime.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent SIDS is to give the infant a pacifier at bedtime. The use of a pacifier while the infant is sleeping is associated with a decreased risk of SIDS. Placing the infant on their back to sleep is recommended to prevent SIDS, not in a prone position (Choice A). Allowing the infant to sleep on a large pillow (Choice B) is dangerous and increases the risk of SIDS. Using a soft mattress in the infant's crib (Choice C) is also a risk factor for SIDS, so it should be avoided. Additionally, soft bedding or pillows should be avoided to reduce the risk of SIDS.

3. A post-op patient has an epidural infusion of morphine sulfate. The patient�s respiratory rate declines to 8 breaths/minute. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Naloxone (Narcan)
• B. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
• C. Methyprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
• D. Protamine Sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effects, both adverse and therapeutic, of opioid narcotic analgesics.

4. During a well-child visit, a nurse is assessing a three-year-old toddler. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 90/50
• B. Respiratory rate 45/min
• C. Weight 14.5 kg or 32 lb
• D. Heart rate 110/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 45/min is above the expected reference range for a 3-year-old toddler and may indicate respiratory dysfunction or acute respiratory distress. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

5. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?

• A. Bloody urine
• B. One void since returning from surgery
• C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
• D. Double diapering from the previous shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.

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