Nursing Elites

1. When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
• B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
• C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with removal
• D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma to the client. Choice B is incorrect because stimulating peristalsis is not the appropriate action for digitally evacuating stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen can be uncomfortable and ineffective. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the digital evacuation procedure.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive sweating.
• B. Increased urinary frequency.
• C. Dry cough.
• D. Metallic taste in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of sertraline that the nurse should include in the teaching is excessive sweating. Sertraline is known to cause this side effect in some individuals. Increased urinary frequency (choice B) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of sertraline. Dry cough (choice C) and metallic taste in the mouth (choice D) are also not typically associated with sertraline use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the potential adverse effect of excessive sweating.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

• A. Administer IV glucose
• B. Administer oral glucose
• C. Check blood sugar in 15 minutes
• D. Provide a high-calorie snack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia is to administer oral glucose. Oral glucose is usually sufficient for treating mild hypoglycemia and can be administered quickly and easily. Administering IV glucose (Choice A) is reserved for severe cases where the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious. Checking blood sugar in 15 minutes (Choice C) is important but providing glucose should come first. Providing a high-calorie snack (Choice D) may not be as rapidly effective as administering oral glucose in quickly raising blood sugar levels in a patient experiencing hypoglycemia.

4. How should a healthcare provider handle a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?

• A. Provide education about medication
• B. Refer the patient to a specialist
• C. Explore alternative treatments
• D. Reassess the patient in 6 months

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing education about the importance of medication adherence is crucial in managing hypertension. By educating the patient about the significance of taking their medication as prescribed, the healthcare provider can help improve compliance and control the patient's blood pressure. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Exploring alternative treatments (Choice C) could be considered if the current medication is not suitable, but initial steps should focus on improving adherence. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) may be too delayed if non-compliance is an issue that needs immediate attention.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer magnesium sulfate.
• B. Place the client in the left lateral position.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Provide a low-sodium diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

Similar Questions